Show that the following function is continuous












0












$begingroup$


Let $ f : mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R} $ be a function which takes a convergent sequence and gives us a convergent sequence.



Show that $f$ is continuous.



So I saw a proof for this but I don't get it.



proof



We show that for all convergent sequences $a_n$ with limit $a$ it holds that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = f(a)$.
Let $a_n$ be convergent with limit $a$. define $ b_n :=a_{frac{n}{2}} $ if $n$ even and $ b_n := a $ if $n$ odd.



Now the unclear part



The following first equation is unclear:



And the last part with "it follows that" is unclear:



$ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_n) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_{2n+1} ) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a) = f(a) $.
It follow that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = a. $










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Please also identify the source in which you found the proof you still need to share with us.
    $endgroup$
    – jordan_glen
    Jan 19 at 19:24
















0












$begingroup$


Let $ f : mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R} $ be a function which takes a convergent sequence and gives us a convergent sequence.



Show that $f$ is continuous.



So I saw a proof for this but I don't get it.



proof



We show that for all convergent sequences $a_n$ with limit $a$ it holds that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = f(a)$.
Let $a_n$ be convergent with limit $a$. define $ b_n :=a_{frac{n}{2}} $ if $n$ even and $ b_n := a $ if $n$ odd.



Now the unclear part



The following first equation is unclear:



And the last part with "it follows that" is unclear:



$ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_n) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_{2n+1} ) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a) = f(a) $.
It follow that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = a. $










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Please also identify the source in which you found the proof you still need to share with us.
    $endgroup$
    – jordan_glen
    Jan 19 at 19:24














0












0








0


0



$begingroup$


Let $ f : mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R} $ be a function which takes a convergent sequence and gives us a convergent sequence.



Show that $f$ is continuous.



So I saw a proof for this but I don't get it.



proof



We show that for all convergent sequences $a_n$ with limit $a$ it holds that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = f(a)$.
Let $a_n$ be convergent with limit $a$. define $ b_n :=a_{frac{n}{2}} $ if $n$ even and $ b_n := a $ if $n$ odd.



Now the unclear part



The following first equation is unclear:



And the last part with "it follows that" is unclear:



$ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_n) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_{2n+1} ) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a) = f(a) $.
It follow that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = a. $










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $ f : mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R} $ be a function which takes a convergent sequence and gives us a convergent sequence.



Show that $f$ is continuous.



So I saw a proof for this but I don't get it.



proof



We show that for all convergent sequences $a_n$ with limit $a$ it holds that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = f(a)$.
Let $a_n$ be convergent with limit $a$. define $ b_n :=a_{frac{n}{2}} $ if $n$ even and $ b_n := a $ if $n$ odd.



Now the unclear part



The following first equation is unclear:



And the last part with "it follows that" is unclear:



$ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_n) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(b_{2n+1} ) = lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a) = f(a) $.
It follow that $ lim_{ n rightarrow infty } f(a_n) = a. $







real-analysis sequences-and-series functions continuity






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asked Jan 19 at 19:08









MemoriesMemories

10611




10611












  • $begingroup$
    Please also identify the source in which you found the proof you still need to share with us.
    $endgroup$
    – jordan_glen
    Jan 19 at 19:24


















  • $begingroup$
    Please also identify the source in which you found the proof you still need to share with us.
    $endgroup$
    – jordan_glen
    Jan 19 at 19:24
















$begingroup$
Please also identify the source in which you found the proof you still need to share with us.
$endgroup$
– jordan_glen
Jan 19 at 19:24




$begingroup$
Please also identify the source in which you found the proof you still need to share with us.
$endgroup$
– jordan_glen
Jan 19 at 19:24










3 Answers
3






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2












$begingroup$

The sequence $bigl(f(b_{2n+1})bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ is a subsequence of the sequence $bigl(f(b_n)bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ and therefore, since the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)$ exists, you have$$lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)=lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n+1}).$$So, the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n})$ also exists, but $b_{2n}=a_n$ and therefore $lim_{ntoinfty}f(a_n)$ exists (and it is equal to $f(a)$).






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$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    This proof centers on the Theorem:




    If $ {s_n}to s$ is a convergent sequence then for any sub sequence ${s_{k_i}}$, ${s_{k_i}}$ is a convergent sequence that converges to $s$.




    So in this case you have:



    ${a_k} to a$ (given)



    ${a_k} = {b_2k} subset {b_n}$ (by the way we defined ${b_n}$.



    $b_{2k+1} = a$ (by definition)



    ${b_{2k+1}} subset {b_n}$.



    It's easy to show ${b_n} to a$ [1]. And we know ${a_k} = {b_{2k}} to a$. And ${a} = {b_{2k+1}} to a$.



    ....



    Now we are told that since ${a_k}={b_{2k}}, {a}={b_{2k+1}}, {b_n}$ all converge then



    ${f(a_k)}={f(b_{2k})}, {f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}, $ and ${f(b_n)}$ all converge.



    But ${f(a_k)} = {f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$, and ${f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$, so they must all converge to the same value.



    So $lim_{kto infty} f(a_k) = $



    $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k}) =$ (because $a_k = b_{2k}$)



    $lim_{nto infty}f(b_n) =$ (because ${f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



    $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k+1})=$ (because ${f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



    $lim_{kto infty}f(a)$ (because $b_{2k+1} =a$)



    $= f(a)$ (because ${f(a)}$ is a constant sequence)



    And that's that.



    For any ${a_k} to a$ we have proven that ${f(a_k)} to f(a)$ and that is the definition of continuous.



    =====



    [1]: If $a_n to a$ and $b_{2k}= a_k$ and $b_{2k+1} = a$ then $b_n to a$.



    Pf: Let $epsilon > 0$. There is an $N$ so that if $n > N$ then $|a_n - a| < epsilon$. So there is an $M = 2N$ where if $n > M$ then



    if $n$ is even then $frac n2 > N$ and $|b_n - a|=|a_{frac n2} - a| < epsilon$



    or if $n$ is odd then $|b_n - a| = |a-a| = 0 < epsilon$.



    So $b_n to a$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$





















      2












      $begingroup$

      Well the first equality of the first equation holds because the limit of a sequence (assuming it exists) is equal to the limit of any of its subsequence.



      As for the "it follows that" part, You apply the same argument with $b_{2n}$ instead of $b_{2n+1}$. (I believed you have made a typo in the last equality btw).






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        3 Answers
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        3 Answers
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        2












        $begingroup$

        The sequence $bigl(f(b_{2n+1})bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ is a subsequence of the sequence $bigl(f(b_n)bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ and therefore, since the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)$ exists, you have$$lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)=lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n+1}).$$So, the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n})$ also exists, but $b_{2n}=a_n$ and therefore $lim_{ntoinfty}f(a_n)$ exists (and it is equal to $f(a)$).






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$


















          2












          $begingroup$

          The sequence $bigl(f(b_{2n+1})bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ is a subsequence of the sequence $bigl(f(b_n)bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ and therefore, since the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)$ exists, you have$$lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)=lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n+1}).$$So, the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n})$ also exists, but $b_{2n}=a_n$ and therefore $lim_{ntoinfty}f(a_n)$ exists (and it is equal to $f(a)$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$
















            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            The sequence $bigl(f(b_{2n+1})bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ is a subsequence of the sequence $bigl(f(b_n)bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ and therefore, since the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)$ exists, you have$$lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)=lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n+1}).$$So, the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n})$ also exists, but $b_{2n}=a_n$ and therefore $lim_{ntoinfty}f(a_n)$ exists (and it is equal to $f(a)$).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The sequence $bigl(f(b_{2n+1})bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ is a subsequence of the sequence $bigl(f(b_n)bigr)_{ninmathbb N}$ and therefore, since the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)$ exists, you have$$lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_n)=lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n+1}).$$So, the limit $lim_{ninmathbb N}f(b_{2n})$ also exists, but $b_{2n}=a_n$ and therefore $lim_{ntoinfty}f(a_n)$ exists (and it is equal to $f(a)$).







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 19 at 19:15









            José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

            162k22128232




            162k22128232























                3












                $begingroup$

                This proof centers on the Theorem:




                If $ {s_n}to s$ is a convergent sequence then for any sub sequence ${s_{k_i}}$, ${s_{k_i}}$ is a convergent sequence that converges to $s$.




                So in this case you have:



                ${a_k} to a$ (given)



                ${a_k} = {b_2k} subset {b_n}$ (by the way we defined ${b_n}$.



                $b_{2k+1} = a$ (by definition)



                ${b_{2k+1}} subset {b_n}$.



                It's easy to show ${b_n} to a$ [1]. And we know ${a_k} = {b_{2k}} to a$. And ${a} = {b_{2k+1}} to a$.



                ....



                Now we are told that since ${a_k}={b_{2k}}, {a}={b_{2k+1}}, {b_n}$ all converge then



                ${f(a_k)}={f(b_{2k})}, {f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}, $ and ${f(b_n)}$ all converge.



                But ${f(a_k)} = {f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$, and ${f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$, so they must all converge to the same value.



                So $lim_{kto infty} f(a_k) = $



                $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k}) =$ (because $a_k = b_{2k}$)



                $lim_{nto infty}f(b_n) =$ (because ${f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k+1})=$ (because ${f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                $lim_{kto infty}f(a)$ (because $b_{2k+1} =a$)



                $= f(a)$ (because ${f(a)}$ is a constant sequence)



                And that's that.



                For any ${a_k} to a$ we have proven that ${f(a_k)} to f(a)$ and that is the definition of continuous.



                =====



                [1]: If $a_n to a$ and $b_{2k}= a_k$ and $b_{2k+1} = a$ then $b_n to a$.



                Pf: Let $epsilon > 0$. There is an $N$ so that if $n > N$ then $|a_n - a| < epsilon$. So there is an $M = 2N$ where if $n > M$ then



                if $n$ is even then $frac n2 > N$ and $|b_n - a|=|a_{frac n2} - a| < epsilon$



                or if $n$ is odd then $|b_n - a| = |a-a| = 0 < epsilon$.



                So $b_n to a$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$


















                  3












                  $begingroup$

                  This proof centers on the Theorem:




                  If $ {s_n}to s$ is a convergent sequence then for any sub sequence ${s_{k_i}}$, ${s_{k_i}}$ is a convergent sequence that converges to $s$.




                  So in this case you have:



                  ${a_k} to a$ (given)



                  ${a_k} = {b_2k} subset {b_n}$ (by the way we defined ${b_n}$.



                  $b_{2k+1} = a$ (by definition)



                  ${b_{2k+1}} subset {b_n}$.



                  It's easy to show ${b_n} to a$ [1]. And we know ${a_k} = {b_{2k}} to a$. And ${a} = {b_{2k+1}} to a$.



                  ....



                  Now we are told that since ${a_k}={b_{2k}}, {a}={b_{2k+1}}, {b_n}$ all converge then



                  ${f(a_k)}={f(b_{2k})}, {f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}, $ and ${f(b_n)}$ all converge.



                  But ${f(a_k)} = {f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$, and ${f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$, so they must all converge to the same value.



                  So $lim_{kto infty} f(a_k) = $



                  $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k}) =$ (because $a_k = b_{2k}$)



                  $lim_{nto infty}f(b_n) =$ (because ${f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                  $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k+1})=$ (because ${f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                  $lim_{kto infty}f(a)$ (because $b_{2k+1} =a$)



                  $= f(a)$ (because ${f(a)}$ is a constant sequence)



                  And that's that.



                  For any ${a_k} to a$ we have proven that ${f(a_k)} to f(a)$ and that is the definition of continuous.



                  =====



                  [1]: If $a_n to a$ and $b_{2k}= a_k$ and $b_{2k+1} = a$ then $b_n to a$.



                  Pf: Let $epsilon > 0$. There is an $N$ so that if $n > N$ then $|a_n - a| < epsilon$. So there is an $M = 2N$ where if $n > M$ then



                  if $n$ is even then $frac n2 > N$ and $|b_n - a|=|a_{frac n2} - a| < epsilon$



                  or if $n$ is odd then $|b_n - a| = |a-a| = 0 < epsilon$.



                  So $b_n to a$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$
















                    3












                    3








                    3





                    $begingroup$

                    This proof centers on the Theorem:




                    If $ {s_n}to s$ is a convergent sequence then for any sub sequence ${s_{k_i}}$, ${s_{k_i}}$ is a convergent sequence that converges to $s$.




                    So in this case you have:



                    ${a_k} to a$ (given)



                    ${a_k} = {b_2k} subset {b_n}$ (by the way we defined ${b_n}$.



                    $b_{2k+1} = a$ (by definition)



                    ${b_{2k+1}} subset {b_n}$.



                    It's easy to show ${b_n} to a$ [1]. And we know ${a_k} = {b_{2k}} to a$. And ${a} = {b_{2k+1}} to a$.



                    ....



                    Now we are told that since ${a_k}={b_{2k}}, {a}={b_{2k+1}}, {b_n}$ all converge then



                    ${f(a_k)}={f(b_{2k})}, {f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}, $ and ${f(b_n)}$ all converge.



                    But ${f(a_k)} = {f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$, and ${f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$, so they must all converge to the same value.



                    So $lim_{kto infty} f(a_k) = $



                    $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k}) =$ (because $a_k = b_{2k}$)



                    $lim_{nto infty}f(b_n) =$ (because ${f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                    $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k+1})=$ (because ${f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                    $lim_{kto infty}f(a)$ (because $b_{2k+1} =a$)



                    $= f(a)$ (because ${f(a)}$ is a constant sequence)



                    And that's that.



                    For any ${a_k} to a$ we have proven that ${f(a_k)} to f(a)$ and that is the definition of continuous.



                    =====



                    [1]: If $a_n to a$ and $b_{2k}= a_k$ and $b_{2k+1} = a$ then $b_n to a$.



                    Pf: Let $epsilon > 0$. There is an $N$ so that if $n > N$ then $|a_n - a| < epsilon$. So there is an $M = 2N$ where if $n > M$ then



                    if $n$ is even then $frac n2 > N$ and $|b_n - a|=|a_{frac n2} - a| < epsilon$



                    or if $n$ is odd then $|b_n - a| = |a-a| = 0 < epsilon$.



                    So $b_n to a$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    This proof centers on the Theorem:




                    If $ {s_n}to s$ is a convergent sequence then for any sub sequence ${s_{k_i}}$, ${s_{k_i}}$ is a convergent sequence that converges to $s$.




                    So in this case you have:



                    ${a_k} to a$ (given)



                    ${a_k} = {b_2k} subset {b_n}$ (by the way we defined ${b_n}$.



                    $b_{2k+1} = a$ (by definition)



                    ${b_{2k+1}} subset {b_n}$.



                    It's easy to show ${b_n} to a$ [1]. And we know ${a_k} = {b_{2k}} to a$. And ${a} = {b_{2k+1}} to a$.



                    ....



                    Now we are told that since ${a_k}={b_{2k}}, {a}={b_{2k+1}}, {b_n}$ all converge then



                    ${f(a_k)}={f(b_{2k})}, {f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}, $ and ${f(b_n)}$ all converge.



                    But ${f(a_k)} = {f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$, and ${f(a)} = {f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$, so they must all converge to the same value.



                    So $lim_{kto infty} f(a_k) = $



                    $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k}) =$ (because $a_k = b_{2k}$)



                    $lim_{nto infty}f(b_n) =$ (because ${f(b_{2k})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                    $lim_{kto infty}f(b_{2k+1})=$ (because ${f(b_{2k+1})}subset {f(b_n)}$)



                    $lim_{kto infty}f(a)$ (because $b_{2k+1} =a$)



                    $= f(a)$ (because ${f(a)}$ is a constant sequence)



                    And that's that.



                    For any ${a_k} to a$ we have proven that ${f(a_k)} to f(a)$ and that is the definition of continuous.



                    =====



                    [1]: If $a_n to a$ and $b_{2k}= a_k$ and $b_{2k+1} = a$ then $b_n to a$.



                    Pf: Let $epsilon > 0$. There is an $N$ so that if $n > N$ then $|a_n - a| < epsilon$. So there is an $M = 2N$ where if $n > M$ then



                    if $n$ is even then $frac n2 > N$ and $|b_n - a|=|a_{frac n2} - a| < epsilon$



                    or if $n$ is odd then $|b_n - a| = |a-a| = 0 < epsilon$.



                    So $b_n to a$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Jan 19 at 21:42

























                    answered Jan 19 at 20:20









                    fleabloodfleablood

                    71k22686




                    71k22686























                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        Well the first equality of the first equation holds because the limit of a sequence (assuming it exists) is equal to the limit of any of its subsequence.



                        As for the "it follows that" part, You apply the same argument with $b_{2n}$ instead of $b_{2n+1}$. (I believed you have made a typo in the last equality btw).






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          2












                          $begingroup$

                          Well the first equality of the first equation holds because the limit of a sequence (assuming it exists) is equal to the limit of any of its subsequence.



                          As for the "it follows that" part, You apply the same argument with $b_{2n}$ instead of $b_{2n+1}$. (I believed you have made a typo in the last equality btw).






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            2












                            2








                            2





                            $begingroup$

                            Well the first equality of the first equation holds because the limit of a sequence (assuming it exists) is equal to the limit of any of its subsequence.



                            As for the "it follows that" part, You apply the same argument with $b_{2n}$ instead of $b_{2n+1}$. (I believed you have made a typo in the last equality btw).






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Well the first equality of the first equation holds because the limit of a sequence (assuming it exists) is equal to the limit of any of its subsequence.



                            As for the "it follows that" part, You apply the same argument with $b_{2n}$ instead of $b_{2n+1}$. (I believed you have made a typo in the last equality btw).







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 19 at 19:17









                            J.FJ.F

                            33812




                            33812






























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