Linear independence of $1, e^{it}, e^{2it}, ldots, e^{nit}$
$begingroup$
Definition: Let $C[a,b]$ be the set of continuous $mathbb{C}$-valued functions on an interval $[a,b] subseteq mathbb{R}$ with $a < b$.
Claim: In $C[-pi, pi]$, the vectors $1, e^{it}, e^{2it}, ldots, e^{nit}$ are linearly independent for each $n = 1,2, ldots$
I'm having trouble understanding why this claim is true. I get that $C[-pi, pi]$ is a vector space, so the $e^{nit}$'s are vectors. But I don't get how to show these functions are linearly independent.
One approach I was thinking about was letting $x = e^{it}$. Then the list of vectors looks more like a list of polynomials: $1,x,x^2, ldots, x^n$. I know these are linearly independent. But I'm not confident this is the correct way to think about it.
Reference: Garcia & Horn Linear Algebra e.g. 1.6.8.
linear-algebra
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Definition: Let $C[a,b]$ be the set of continuous $mathbb{C}$-valued functions on an interval $[a,b] subseteq mathbb{R}$ with $a < b$.
Claim: In $C[-pi, pi]$, the vectors $1, e^{it}, e^{2it}, ldots, e^{nit}$ are linearly independent for each $n = 1,2, ldots$
I'm having trouble understanding why this claim is true. I get that $C[-pi, pi]$ is a vector space, so the $e^{nit}$'s are vectors. But I don't get how to show these functions are linearly independent.
One approach I was thinking about was letting $x = e^{it}$. Then the list of vectors looks more like a list of polynomials: $1,x,x^2, ldots, x^n$. I know these are linearly independent. But I'm not confident this is the correct way to think about it.
Reference: Garcia & Horn Linear Algebra e.g. 1.6.8.
linear-algebra
$endgroup$
4
$begingroup$
Polynomials are a fine way to think about it, I would say. If some linear combination is identically $0$, then you have a polynomial with infinitely many roots.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 19 at 18:54
3
$begingroup$
Also note that each $e^{int}$ is an eigenvector of differentiation operator corresponding to distinct eigenvalues $in$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 19 at 19:06
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Definition: Let $C[a,b]$ be the set of continuous $mathbb{C}$-valued functions on an interval $[a,b] subseteq mathbb{R}$ with $a < b$.
Claim: In $C[-pi, pi]$, the vectors $1, e^{it}, e^{2it}, ldots, e^{nit}$ are linearly independent for each $n = 1,2, ldots$
I'm having trouble understanding why this claim is true. I get that $C[-pi, pi]$ is a vector space, so the $e^{nit}$'s are vectors. But I don't get how to show these functions are linearly independent.
One approach I was thinking about was letting $x = e^{it}$. Then the list of vectors looks more like a list of polynomials: $1,x,x^2, ldots, x^n$. I know these are linearly independent. But I'm not confident this is the correct way to think about it.
Reference: Garcia & Horn Linear Algebra e.g. 1.6.8.
linear-algebra
$endgroup$
Definition: Let $C[a,b]$ be the set of continuous $mathbb{C}$-valued functions on an interval $[a,b] subseteq mathbb{R}$ with $a < b$.
Claim: In $C[-pi, pi]$, the vectors $1, e^{it}, e^{2it}, ldots, e^{nit}$ are linearly independent for each $n = 1,2, ldots$
I'm having trouble understanding why this claim is true. I get that $C[-pi, pi]$ is a vector space, so the $e^{nit}$'s are vectors. But I don't get how to show these functions are linearly independent.
One approach I was thinking about was letting $x = e^{it}$. Then the list of vectors looks more like a list of polynomials: $1,x,x^2, ldots, x^n$. I know these are linearly independent. But I'm not confident this is the correct way to think about it.
Reference: Garcia & Horn Linear Algebra e.g. 1.6.8.
linear-algebra
linear-algebra
asked Jan 19 at 18:50
T. FoT. Fo
466311
466311
4
$begingroup$
Polynomials are a fine way to think about it, I would say. If some linear combination is identically $0$, then you have a polynomial with infinitely many roots.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 19 at 18:54
3
$begingroup$
Also note that each $e^{int}$ is an eigenvector of differentiation operator corresponding to distinct eigenvalues $in$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 19 at 19:06
add a comment |
4
$begingroup$
Polynomials are a fine way to think about it, I would say. If some linear combination is identically $0$, then you have a polynomial with infinitely many roots.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 19 at 18:54
3
$begingroup$
Also note that each $e^{int}$ is an eigenvector of differentiation operator corresponding to distinct eigenvalues $in$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 19 at 19:06
4
4
$begingroup$
Polynomials are a fine way to think about it, I would say. If some linear combination is identically $0$, then you have a polynomial with infinitely many roots.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 19 at 18:54
$begingroup$
Polynomials are a fine way to think about it, I would say. If some linear combination is identically $0$, then you have a polynomial with infinitely many roots.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 19 at 18:54
3
3
$begingroup$
Also note that each $e^{int}$ is an eigenvector of differentiation operator corresponding to distinct eigenvalues $in$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 19 at 19:06
$begingroup$
Also note that each $e^{int}$ is an eigenvector of differentiation operator corresponding to distinct eigenvalues $in$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 19 at 19:06
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For the proof, we will employ Euler's formula:
$$ e^{itheta} = cos{(theta)} + isin{(theta)}$$
We proceed by induction.
Base case:
The base case where $n = 1$ follows easily, for if
$$c_0 + c_1e^{it} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$
then for $ t = 0 $ and $t = pi$, we have the following two equations:
$$ c_0 + c_1 = 0$$
$$ c_0 - c_1 = 0$$
which implies that
$$ c_0 = c_1 = 0 $$
Inductive case:
For the inductive case, suppose there are scalars $c_0, c_1, dots, c_n$ such that
$$ c_0 + c_1e^{it} + cdots c_ne^{nit} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$.
Using Euler's formula and setting $t = 0$, we have
$$c_0 + c_1sin{(0)} + cdots + c_nsin{(0)} = 0$$
so $$c_0 = 0$$
Thus,
$$ c_1e^{it} + c_2e^{2it} + cdots + c_ne^{nit} = 0 $$
so we can factor out $e^{it}$ to get
$$ e^{it}(c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it}) = 0 $$
and since $e^{it} ne 0$ for all $t$, this implies
$$c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it} = 0$$
in which case we employ the inductive hypothesis to get
$$ c_1 = c_2 = cdots = c_n = 0 $$
and since $c_0 = 0$ as well, this ends the proof.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a technique using the definition of linear independence and some easy integration: Suppose $$sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t} = 0$$ for some $a_0, ldots, a_n$. Integrating against $e^{-j i t}$ for $j in {0, ldots, n}$ gives
$$0 = int_0^{2 pi} left(sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t}right) e^{-j i t} dt = sum_{k = 0}^n a_k int_0^{2 pi} e^{(k - j) i t} dt = 2 pi a_j,$$ so each $a_j$ is zero.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the contrary. Then there are $a_0, a_1, cdots a_n$ that are nonzero and
so that
$$sum_{k=0}^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0.$$ Consider the polynomial
$$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^n a_k z^k = 0.$$ This analytic function is mapping the unit circle to zero. Therefore, it must be the zero function. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the functions
$e^{ikt}, ; 0 le k le n, tag 1$
were linearly dependent over $Bbb C$; then we would have
$a_k in Bbb C, ; 0 le k le n, tag 2$
not all $0$, with
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0; tag 3$
we note that
$a_k ne 0 tag 4$
for at least one $k ge 1$; otherwise (3) reduces to
$a_0 cdot 1 = 0, ; a_0 ne 0 Longrightarrow 1 = 0, tag 5$
an absurdity; we may thus assume further that
$a_n ne 0; tag 6$
also, we may write (3) as
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k (e^{it})^k = 0; tag 7$
but (7) is a polynomial of degree $n$ in the $e^{it}$; as such (by the fundamental theorem of algebra), it has at most $n$ distinct zeroes
$mu_i in Bbb C, 1 le i le n; tag 8$
this further implies that
$forall t in [-pi, pi], ; e^{it} in {mu_1, mu_2, ldots, mu_n }, tag 9$
that is, $e^{it}$ may only take values in the finite set of zeroes of (7); but this assertion is patently false, since $e^{it}$ passes through every unimodular complex number as $-pi to t to pi$, i.e., the range of $e^{it}$ is uncountable. This contradiction implies that (3) cannot bind, and hence that the $e^{ikt}$ are linearly independent over $Bbb C$ on $[-pi, pi]$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For the proof, we will employ Euler's formula:
$$ e^{itheta} = cos{(theta)} + isin{(theta)}$$
We proceed by induction.
Base case:
The base case where $n = 1$ follows easily, for if
$$c_0 + c_1e^{it} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$
then for $ t = 0 $ and $t = pi$, we have the following two equations:
$$ c_0 + c_1 = 0$$
$$ c_0 - c_1 = 0$$
which implies that
$$ c_0 = c_1 = 0 $$
Inductive case:
For the inductive case, suppose there are scalars $c_0, c_1, dots, c_n$ such that
$$ c_0 + c_1e^{it} + cdots c_ne^{nit} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$.
Using Euler's formula and setting $t = 0$, we have
$$c_0 + c_1sin{(0)} + cdots + c_nsin{(0)} = 0$$
so $$c_0 = 0$$
Thus,
$$ c_1e^{it} + c_2e^{2it} + cdots + c_ne^{nit} = 0 $$
so we can factor out $e^{it}$ to get
$$ e^{it}(c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it}) = 0 $$
and since $e^{it} ne 0$ for all $t$, this implies
$$c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it} = 0$$
in which case we employ the inductive hypothesis to get
$$ c_1 = c_2 = cdots = c_n = 0 $$
and since $c_0 = 0$ as well, this ends the proof.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the proof, we will employ Euler's formula:
$$ e^{itheta} = cos{(theta)} + isin{(theta)}$$
We proceed by induction.
Base case:
The base case where $n = 1$ follows easily, for if
$$c_0 + c_1e^{it} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$
then for $ t = 0 $ and $t = pi$, we have the following two equations:
$$ c_0 + c_1 = 0$$
$$ c_0 - c_1 = 0$$
which implies that
$$ c_0 = c_1 = 0 $$
Inductive case:
For the inductive case, suppose there are scalars $c_0, c_1, dots, c_n$ such that
$$ c_0 + c_1e^{it} + cdots c_ne^{nit} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$.
Using Euler's formula and setting $t = 0$, we have
$$c_0 + c_1sin{(0)} + cdots + c_nsin{(0)} = 0$$
so $$c_0 = 0$$
Thus,
$$ c_1e^{it} + c_2e^{2it} + cdots + c_ne^{nit} = 0 $$
so we can factor out $e^{it}$ to get
$$ e^{it}(c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it}) = 0 $$
and since $e^{it} ne 0$ for all $t$, this implies
$$c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it} = 0$$
in which case we employ the inductive hypothesis to get
$$ c_1 = c_2 = cdots = c_n = 0 $$
and since $c_0 = 0$ as well, this ends the proof.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the proof, we will employ Euler's formula:
$$ e^{itheta} = cos{(theta)} + isin{(theta)}$$
We proceed by induction.
Base case:
The base case where $n = 1$ follows easily, for if
$$c_0 + c_1e^{it} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$
then for $ t = 0 $ and $t = pi$, we have the following two equations:
$$ c_0 + c_1 = 0$$
$$ c_0 - c_1 = 0$$
which implies that
$$ c_0 = c_1 = 0 $$
Inductive case:
For the inductive case, suppose there are scalars $c_0, c_1, dots, c_n$ such that
$$ c_0 + c_1e^{it} + cdots c_ne^{nit} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$.
Using Euler's formula and setting $t = 0$, we have
$$c_0 + c_1sin{(0)} + cdots + c_nsin{(0)} = 0$$
so $$c_0 = 0$$
Thus,
$$ c_1e^{it} + c_2e^{2it} + cdots + c_ne^{nit} = 0 $$
so we can factor out $e^{it}$ to get
$$ e^{it}(c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it}) = 0 $$
and since $e^{it} ne 0$ for all $t$, this implies
$$c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it} = 0$$
in which case we employ the inductive hypothesis to get
$$ c_1 = c_2 = cdots = c_n = 0 $$
and since $c_0 = 0$ as well, this ends the proof.
$endgroup$
For the proof, we will employ Euler's formula:
$$ e^{itheta} = cos{(theta)} + isin{(theta)}$$
We proceed by induction.
Base case:
The base case where $n = 1$ follows easily, for if
$$c_0 + c_1e^{it} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$
then for $ t = 0 $ and $t = pi$, we have the following two equations:
$$ c_0 + c_1 = 0$$
$$ c_0 - c_1 = 0$$
which implies that
$$ c_0 = c_1 = 0 $$
Inductive case:
For the inductive case, suppose there are scalars $c_0, c_1, dots, c_n$ such that
$$ c_0 + c_1e^{it} + cdots c_ne^{nit} = 0$$
for all $t in [-pi,pi]$.
Using Euler's formula and setting $t = 0$, we have
$$c_0 + c_1sin{(0)} + cdots + c_nsin{(0)} = 0$$
so $$c_0 = 0$$
Thus,
$$ c_1e^{it} + c_2e^{2it} + cdots + c_ne^{nit} = 0 $$
so we can factor out $e^{it}$ to get
$$ e^{it}(c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it}) = 0 $$
and since $e^{it} ne 0$ for all $t$, this implies
$$c_1 + c_2e^{it} + cdots + c_ne^{(n-1)it} = 0$$
in which case we employ the inductive hypothesis to get
$$ c_1 = c_2 = cdots = c_n = 0 $$
and since $c_0 = 0$ as well, this ends the proof.
answered Jan 19 at 20:10
MetricMetric
1,23649
1,23649
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a technique using the definition of linear independence and some easy integration: Suppose $$sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t} = 0$$ for some $a_0, ldots, a_n$. Integrating against $e^{-j i t}$ for $j in {0, ldots, n}$ gives
$$0 = int_0^{2 pi} left(sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t}right) e^{-j i t} dt = sum_{k = 0}^n a_k int_0^{2 pi} e^{(k - j) i t} dt = 2 pi a_j,$$ so each $a_j$ is zero.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a technique using the definition of linear independence and some easy integration: Suppose $$sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t} = 0$$ for some $a_0, ldots, a_n$. Integrating against $e^{-j i t}$ for $j in {0, ldots, n}$ gives
$$0 = int_0^{2 pi} left(sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t}right) e^{-j i t} dt = sum_{k = 0}^n a_k int_0^{2 pi} e^{(k - j) i t} dt = 2 pi a_j,$$ so each $a_j$ is zero.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a technique using the definition of linear independence and some easy integration: Suppose $$sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t} = 0$$ for some $a_0, ldots, a_n$. Integrating against $e^{-j i t}$ for $j in {0, ldots, n}$ gives
$$0 = int_0^{2 pi} left(sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t}right) e^{-j i t} dt = sum_{k = 0}^n a_k int_0^{2 pi} e^{(k - j) i t} dt = 2 pi a_j,$$ so each $a_j$ is zero.
$endgroup$
Here's a technique using the definition of linear independence and some easy integration: Suppose $$sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t} = 0$$ for some $a_0, ldots, a_n$. Integrating against $e^{-j i t}$ for $j in {0, ldots, n}$ gives
$$0 = int_0^{2 pi} left(sum_{k = 0}^n a_k e^{k i t}right) e^{-j i t} dt = sum_{k = 0}^n a_k int_0^{2 pi} e^{(k - j) i t} dt = 2 pi a_j,$$ so each $a_j$ is zero.
answered Jan 19 at 20:30
TravisTravis
60.3k767147
60.3k767147
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the contrary. Then there are $a_0, a_1, cdots a_n$ that are nonzero and
so that
$$sum_{k=0}^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0.$$ Consider the polynomial
$$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^n a_k z^k = 0.$$ This analytic function is mapping the unit circle to zero. Therefore, it must be the zero function. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the contrary. Then there are $a_0, a_1, cdots a_n$ that are nonzero and
so that
$$sum_{k=0}^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0.$$ Consider the polynomial
$$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^n a_k z^k = 0.$$ This analytic function is mapping the unit circle to zero. Therefore, it must be the zero function. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the contrary. Then there are $a_0, a_1, cdots a_n$ that are nonzero and
so that
$$sum_{k=0}^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0.$$ Consider the polynomial
$$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^n a_k z^k = 0.$$ This analytic function is mapping the unit circle to zero. Therefore, it must be the zero function. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
Suppose the contrary. Then there are $a_0, a_1, cdots a_n$ that are nonzero and
so that
$$sum_{k=0}^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0.$$ Consider the polynomial
$$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^n a_k z^k = 0.$$ This analytic function is mapping the unit circle to zero. Therefore, it must be the zero function. Contradiction.
answered Jan 19 at 20:11
ncmathsadistncmathsadist
42.8k260103
42.8k260103
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the functions
$e^{ikt}, ; 0 le k le n, tag 1$
were linearly dependent over $Bbb C$; then we would have
$a_k in Bbb C, ; 0 le k le n, tag 2$
not all $0$, with
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0; tag 3$
we note that
$a_k ne 0 tag 4$
for at least one $k ge 1$; otherwise (3) reduces to
$a_0 cdot 1 = 0, ; a_0 ne 0 Longrightarrow 1 = 0, tag 5$
an absurdity; we may thus assume further that
$a_n ne 0; tag 6$
also, we may write (3) as
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k (e^{it})^k = 0; tag 7$
but (7) is a polynomial of degree $n$ in the $e^{it}$; as such (by the fundamental theorem of algebra), it has at most $n$ distinct zeroes
$mu_i in Bbb C, 1 le i le n; tag 8$
this further implies that
$forall t in [-pi, pi], ; e^{it} in {mu_1, mu_2, ldots, mu_n }, tag 9$
that is, $e^{it}$ may only take values in the finite set of zeroes of (7); but this assertion is patently false, since $e^{it}$ passes through every unimodular complex number as $-pi to t to pi$, i.e., the range of $e^{it}$ is uncountable. This contradiction implies that (3) cannot bind, and hence that the $e^{ikt}$ are linearly independent over $Bbb C$ on $[-pi, pi]$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the functions
$e^{ikt}, ; 0 le k le n, tag 1$
were linearly dependent over $Bbb C$; then we would have
$a_k in Bbb C, ; 0 le k le n, tag 2$
not all $0$, with
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0; tag 3$
we note that
$a_k ne 0 tag 4$
for at least one $k ge 1$; otherwise (3) reduces to
$a_0 cdot 1 = 0, ; a_0 ne 0 Longrightarrow 1 = 0, tag 5$
an absurdity; we may thus assume further that
$a_n ne 0; tag 6$
also, we may write (3) as
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k (e^{it})^k = 0; tag 7$
but (7) is a polynomial of degree $n$ in the $e^{it}$; as such (by the fundamental theorem of algebra), it has at most $n$ distinct zeroes
$mu_i in Bbb C, 1 le i le n; tag 8$
this further implies that
$forall t in [-pi, pi], ; e^{it} in {mu_1, mu_2, ldots, mu_n }, tag 9$
that is, $e^{it}$ may only take values in the finite set of zeroes of (7); but this assertion is patently false, since $e^{it}$ passes through every unimodular complex number as $-pi to t to pi$, i.e., the range of $e^{it}$ is uncountable. This contradiction implies that (3) cannot bind, and hence that the $e^{ikt}$ are linearly independent over $Bbb C$ on $[-pi, pi]$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the functions
$e^{ikt}, ; 0 le k le n, tag 1$
were linearly dependent over $Bbb C$; then we would have
$a_k in Bbb C, ; 0 le k le n, tag 2$
not all $0$, with
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0; tag 3$
we note that
$a_k ne 0 tag 4$
for at least one $k ge 1$; otherwise (3) reduces to
$a_0 cdot 1 = 0, ; a_0 ne 0 Longrightarrow 1 = 0, tag 5$
an absurdity; we may thus assume further that
$a_n ne 0; tag 6$
also, we may write (3) as
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k (e^{it})^k = 0; tag 7$
but (7) is a polynomial of degree $n$ in the $e^{it}$; as such (by the fundamental theorem of algebra), it has at most $n$ distinct zeroes
$mu_i in Bbb C, 1 le i le n; tag 8$
this further implies that
$forall t in [-pi, pi], ; e^{it} in {mu_1, mu_2, ldots, mu_n }, tag 9$
that is, $e^{it}$ may only take values in the finite set of zeroes of (7); but this assertion is patently false, since $e^{it}$ passes through every unimodular complex number as $-pi to t to pi$, i.e., the range of $e^{it}$ is uncountable. This contradiction implies that (3) cannot bind, and hence that the $e^{ikt}$ are linearly independent over $Bbb C$ on $[-pi, pi]$.
$endgroup$
Suppose the functions
$e^{ikt}, ; 0 le k le n, tag 1$
were linearly dependent over $Bbb C$; then we would have
$a_k in Bbb C, ; 0 le k le n, tag 2$
not all $0$, with
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k e^{ikt} = 0; tag 3$
we note that
$a_k ne 0 tag 4$
for at least one $k ge 1$; otherwise (3) reduces to
$a_0 cdot 1 = 0, ; a_0 ne 0 Longrightarrow 1 = 0, tag 5$
an absurdity; we may thus assume further that
$a_n ne 0; tag 6$
also, we may write (3) as
$displaystyle sum_0^n a_k (e^{it})^k = 0; tag 7$
but (7) is a polynomial of degree $n$ in the $e^{it}$; as such (by the fundamental theorem of algebra), it has at most $n$ distinct zeroes
$mu_i in Bbb C, 1 le i le n; tag 8$
this further implies that
$forall t in [-pi, pi], ; e^{it} in {mu_1, mu_2, ldots, mu_n }, tag 9$
that is, $e^{it}$ may only take values in the finite set of zeroes of (7); but this assertion is patently false, since $e^{it}$ passes through every unimodular complex number as $-pi to t to pi$, i.e., the range of $e^{it}$ is uncountable. This contradiction implies that (3) cannot bind, and hence that the $e^{ikt}$ are linearly independent over $Bbb C$ on $[-pi, pi]$.
edited Jan 19 at 20:22
answered Jan 19 at 20:03
Robert LewisRobert Lewis
46.6k23067
46.6k23067
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4
$begingroup$
Polynomials are a fine way to think about it, I would say. If some linear combination is identically $0$, then you have a polynomial with infinitely many roots.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 19 at 18:54
3
$begingroup$
Also note that each $e^{int}$ is an eigenvector of differentiation operator corresponding to distinct eigenvalues $in$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 19 at 19:06