$limsup$ and integral inequality












1












$begingroup$


I have functions $f$, $g$ :$(0, infty) rightarrow (0, infty)$, and $g$ is invertible and decreasing (I don't know if it is relevant or not in this case). I know also that $limsup_{x searrow 0} frac {g(x)} {f(x)} < infty$. I should be able to deduce that $int_0^r g(x) dx leq int_0^r f(x) dx$ for some small enough $r in (0, 1)$. It should be easy to see, but the problem is, I don't see how.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You have twice $g$ in your integral inequality.
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 19 at 18:26










  • $begingroup$
    True, fixed it.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 20 at 19:17










  • $begingroup$
    Did you mean for the $limsup$ to be $<1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 20 at 19:26










  • $begingroup$
    @UmbertoP. No, $<infty$ is what was given.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 21 at 22:14










  • $begingroup$
    Take any decreasing $g$ (which is then invertible) and let $f(x) = dfrac 12 g(x)$. Then the $limsup$ equals $2$ but $int_0^r g(x) , dx = 2 int_0^r f(x) , dx > int_0^r f(x) , dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 21 at 22:17
















1












$begingroup$


I have functions $f$, $g$ :$(0, infty) rightarrow (0, infty)$, and $g$ is invertible and decreasing (I don't know if it is relevant or not in this case). I know also that $limsup_{x searrow 0} frac {g(x)} {f(x)} < infty$. I should be able to deduce that $int_0^r g(x) dx leq int_0^r f(x) dx$ for some small enough $r in (0, 1)$. It should be easy to see, but the problem is, I don't see how.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You have twice $g$ in your integral inequality.
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 19 at 18:26










  • $begingroup$
    True, fixed it.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 20 at 19:17










  • $begingroup$
    Did you mean for the $limsup$ to be $<1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 20 at 19:26










  • $begingroup$
    @UmbertoP. No, $<infty$ is what was given.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 21 at 22:14










  • $begingroup$
    Take any decreasing $g$ (which is then invertible) and let $f(x) = dfrac 12 g(x)$. Then the $limsup$ equals $2$ but $int_0^r g(x) , dx = 2 int_0^r f(x) , dx > int_0^r f(x) , dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 21 at 22:17














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I have functions $f$, $g$ :$(0, infty) rightarrow (0, infty)$, and $g$ is invertible and decreasing (I don't know if it is relevant or not in this case). I know also that $limsup_{x searrow 0} frac {g(x)} {f(x)} < infty$. I should be able to deduce that $int_0^r g(x) dx leq int_0^r f(x) dx$ for some small enough $r in (0, 1)$. It should be easy to see, but the problem is, I don't see how.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have functions $f$, $g$ :$(0, infty) rightarrow (0, infty)$, and $g$ is invertible and decreasing (I don't know if it is relevant or not in this case). I know also that $limsup_{x searrow 0} frac {g(x)} {f(x)} < infty$. I should be able to deduce that $int_0^r g(x) dx leq int_0^r f(x) dx$ for some small enough $r in (0, 1)$. It should be easy to see, but the problem is, I don't see how.







real-analysis integration limsup-and-liminf






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 20 at 19:16







diipadaapa

















asked Jan 19 at 18:22









diipadaapadiipadaapa

62




62












  • $begingroup$
    You have twice $g$ in your integral inequality.
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 19 at 18:26










  • $begingroup$
    True, fixed it.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 20 at 19:17










  • $begingroup$
    Did you mean for the $limsup$ to be $<1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 20 at 19:26










  • $begingroup$
    @UmbertoP. No, $<infty$ is what was given.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 21 at 22:14










  • $begingroup$
    Take any decreasing $g$ (which is then invertible) and let $f(x) = dfrac 12 g(x)$. Then the $limsup$ equals $2$ but $int_0^r g(x) , dx = 2 int_0^r f(x) , dx > int_0^r f(x) , dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 21 at 22:17


















  • $begingroup$
    You have twice $g$ in your integral inequality.
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 19 at 18:26










  • $begingroup$
    True, fixed it.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 20 at 19:17










  • $begingroup$
    Did you mean for the $limsup$ to be $<1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 20 at 19:26










  • $begingroup$
    @UmbertoP. No, $<infty$ is what was given.
    $endgroup$
    – diipadaapa
    Jan 21 at 22:14










  • $begingroup$
    Take any decreasing $g$ (which is then invertible) and let $f(x) = dfrac 12 g(x)$. Then the $limsup$ equals $2$ but $int_0^r g(x) , dx = 2 int_0^r f(x) , dx > int_0^r f(x) , dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 21 at 22:17
















$begingroup$
You have twice $g$ in your integral inequality.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 19 at 18:26




$begingroup$
You have twice $g$ in your integral inequality.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 19 at 18:26












$begingroup$
True, fixed it.
$endgroup$
– diipadaapa
Jan 20 at 19:17




$begingroup$
True, fixed it.
$endgroup$
– diipadaapa
Jan 20 at 19:17












$begingroup$
Did you mean for the $limsup$ to be $<1$?
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
Jan 20 at 19:26




$begingroup$
Did you mean for the $limsup$ to be $<1$?
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
Jan 20 at 19:26












$begingroup$
@UmbertoP. No, $<infty$ is what was given.
$endgroup$
– diipadaapa
Jan 21 at 22:14




$begingroup$
@UmbertoP. No, $<infty$ is what was given.
$endgroup$
– diipadaapa
Jan 21 at 22:14












$begingroup$
Take any decreasing $g$ (which is then invertible) and let $f(x) = dfrac 12 g(x)$. Then the $limsup$ equals $2$ but $int_0^r g(x) , dx = 2 int_0^r f(x) , dx > int_0^r f(x) , dx$.
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
Jan 21 at 22:17




$begingroup$
Take any decreasing $g$ (which is then invertible) and let $f(x) = dfrac 12 g(x)$. Then the $limsup$ equals $2$ but $int_0^r g(x) , dx = 2 int_0^r f(x) , dx > int_0^r f(x) , dx$.
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
Jan 21 at 22:17










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