Why are $(,f_1,…,f_n)$ linearly independent if $|,f_k-e_k|_2<dfrac{1}{sqrt n}$, where $(e_k)$ is an...












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  • Prove that $v_1, dots v_n$ is a basis of V.

    2 answers




Let $(e_1,...,e_n)$ be an orthonomal basis and $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ vectors such that $|f_k-e_k|_2<dfrac{1}{sqrt n},forall k,$.

I'd like to show that $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ are linearly independent.



I don't know where to start:

I tried to see what happens for $n=2$ but, because $(,f_1,f_2)$ are two different vectors, they are linearly independent, and it does not help to see what happens in higher dimension.



It's easy to see that the $f_i$ are distinct because they are in separated balls.



I also tried to elevate to the square the relation but I found nothing.










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Jan 30 at 9:18


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried? Where did you get stuck? Can you prove it for $n = 2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know where to start. I can prove it for n=2. See my edit.
    $endgroup$
    – MiKiDe
    Jan 24 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note that two different vectors need not be linearly independent. One could be a multiple of the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 17:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You can see this earlier post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1452559/….
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Jan 24 at 18:01
















4












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Prove that $v_1, dots v_n$ is a basis of V.

    2 answers




Let $(e_1,...,e_n)$ be an orthonomal basis and $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ vectors such that $|f_k-e_k|_2<dfrac{1}{sqrt n},forall k,$.

I'd like to show that $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ are linearly independent.



I don't know where to start:

I tried to see what happens for $n=2$ but, because $(,f_1,f_2)$ are two different vectors, they are linearly independent, and it does not help to see what happens in higher dimension.



It's easy to see that the $f_i$ are distinct because they are in separated balls.



I also tried to elevate to the square the relation but I found nothing.










share|cite|improve this question











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marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, mrtaurho, metamorphy, José Carlos Santos linear-algebra
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Jan 30 at 9:18


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried? Where did you get stuck? Can you prove it for $n = 2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know where to start. I can prove it for n=2. See my edit.
    $endgroup$
    – MiKiDe
    Jan 24 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note that two different vectors need not be linearly independent. One could be a multiple of the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 17:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You can see this earlier post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1452559/….
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Jan 24 at 18:01














4












4








4


3



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Prove that $v_1, dots v_n$ is a basis of V.

    2 answers




Let $(e_1,...,e_n)$ be an orthonomal basis and $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ vectors such that $|f_k-e_k|_2<dfrac{1}{sqrt n},forall k,$.

I'd like to show that $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ are linearly independent.



I don't know where to start:

I tried to see what happens for $n=2$ but, because $(,f_1,f_2)$ are two different vectors, they are linearly independent, and it does not help to see what happens in higher dimension.



It's easy to see that the $f_i$ are distinct because they are in separated balls.



I also tried to elevate to the square the relation but I found nothing.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Prove that $v_1, dots v_n$ is a basis of V.

    2 answers




Let $(e_1,...,e_n)$ be an orthonomal basis and $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ vectors such that $|f_k-e_k|_2<dfrac{1}{sqrt n},forall k,$.

I'd like to show that $(,f_1,...,f_n)$ are linearly independent.



I don't know where to start:

I tried to see what happens for $n=2$ but, because $(,f_1,f_2)$ are two different vectors, they are linearly independent, and it does not help to see what happens in higher dimension.



It's easy to see that the $f_i$ are distinct because they are in separated balls.



I also tried to elevate to the square the relation but I found nothing.





This question already has an answer here:




  • Prove that $v_1, dots v_n$ is a basis of V.

    2 answers








linear-algebra orthogonality






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 25 at 0:00









Hanno

2,284628




2,284628










asked Jan 24 at 16:13









MiKiDeMiKiDe

52528




52528




marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, mrtaurho, metamorphy, José Carlos Santos linear-algebra
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Jan 30 at 9:18


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, mrtaurho, metamorphy, José Carlos Santos linear-algebra
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Jan 30 at 9:18


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried? Where did you get stuck? Can you prove it for $n = 2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know where to start. I can prove it for n=2. See my edit.
    $endgroup$
    – MiKiDe
    Jan 24 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note that two different vectors need not be linearly independent. One could be a multiple of the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 17:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You can see this earlier post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1452559/….
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Jan 24 at 18:01


















  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried? Where did you get stuck? Can you prove it for $n = 2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know where to start. I can prove it for n=2. See my edit.
    $endgroup$
    – MiKiDe
    Jan 24 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note that two different vectors need not be linearly independent. One could be a multiple of the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Mees de Vries
    Jan 24 at 17:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You can see this earlier post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1452559/….
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Jan 24 at 18:01
















$begingroup$
What have you tried? Where did you get stuck? Can you prove it for $n = 2$?
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Jan 24 at 16:30




$begingroup$
What have you tried? Where did you get stuck? Can you prove it for $n = 2$?
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Jan 24 at 16:30












$begingroup$
I don't know where to start. I can prove it for n=2. See my edit.
$endgroup$
– MiKiDe
Jan 24 at 17:10




$begingroup$
I don't know where to start. I can prove it for n=2. See my edit.
$endgroup$
– MiKiDe
Jan 24 at 17:10












$begingroup$
Note that two different vectors need not be linearly independent. One could be a multiple of the other.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Jan 24 at 17:36




$begingroup$
Note that two different vectors need not be linearly independent. One could be a multiple of the other.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Jan 24 at 17:36




2




2




$begingroup$
You can see this earlier post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1452559/….
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 24 at 18:01




$begingroup$
You can see this earlier post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1452559/….
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 24 at 18:01










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

If the $f_k$ are not linearly independent, then they can not span the space, so



$M=$span$({{f_k}})^{perp}neq 0.$ Therefore, there is a non-zero vector $uin M$ such that for each integer $1le kle n, uperp f_k.$



Of course, $u=sum^n_{k=1}langle u,e_krangle e_k, $ so that $|u|^2=sum^n_{k=1}|langle u,e_k-f_krangle |^2. $ Now, apply Cauchy-Schwarz to this last item and then use the hypothesis:



$|u|^2le sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot |e_k-f_k|^2<sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2=ncdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2cdot |u|^2=|u|^2$, and so we get that $|u|^2<|u|^2$, which is absurd.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    The condition
    $|f_k - e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$ can be written
    $$ |(I-T)e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$$
    Where $T:Xto X$ is the linear map on $X=operatorname{span}{e_1dots e_n}$ that maps $e_k mapsto f_k$, and $I:Xmapsto X$ is the identity map.



    Suppose now $x=sum_i x_i e_i $ is an arbitrary vector in $X$ with $|x|^2_2 = sum_i x_i ^2 = 1$. Then
    begin{align} &|(I-T)x|_2
    \ le& sum_{i=1}^n | x_i|| (I-T) e_i|_2
    \ le &sqrt{sum_i |x_i|^2} sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} \ =& sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2}
    end{align}



    Thus the operator norm $|I-T|_{op} := sup_{x: |x|_2 = 1} |(I-T)x|_2 le sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} < 1 $. By results on Neumann series (see Proof of Neumann Lemma ), $T$ is invertible, and the result follows.



    Also, here's a picture showing why a strict inequality is important:
    counterexample






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      the inequality is strict
      $endgroup$
      – Thinking
      Jan 24 at 18:03










    • $begingroup$
      @Thinking oops, yes, and thats important. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Calvin Khor
      Jan 24 at 18:03


















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    If the $f_k$ are not linearly independent, then they can not span the space, so



    $M=$span$({{f_k}})^{perp}neq 0.$ Therefore, there is a non-zero vector $uin M$ such that for each integer $1le kle n, uperp f_k.$



    Of course, $u=sum^n_{k=1}langle u,e_krangle e_k, $ so that $|u|^2=sum^n_{k=1}|langle u,e_k-f_krangle |^2. $ Now, apply Cauchy-Schwarz to this last item and then use the hypothesis:



    $|u|^2le sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot |e_k-f_k|^2<sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2=ncdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2cdot |u|^2=|u|^2$, and so we get that $|u|^2<|u|^2$, which is absurd.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      5












      $begingroup$

      If the $f_k$ are not linearly independent, then they can not span the space, so



      $M=$span$({{f_k}})^{perp}neq 0.$ Therefore, there is a non-zero vector $uin M$ such that for each integer $1le kle n, uperp f_k.$



      Of course, $u=sum^n_{k=1}langle u,e_krangle e_k, $ so that $|u|^2=sum^n_{k=1}|langle u,e_k-f_krangle |^2. $ Now, apply Cauchy-Schwarz to this last item and then use the hypothesis:



      $|u|^2le sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot |e_k-f_k|^2<sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2=ncdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2cdot |u|^2=|u|^2$, and so we get that $|u|^2<|u|^2$, which is absurd.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        If the $f_k$ are not linearly independent, then they can not span the space, so



        $M=$span$({{f_k}})^{perp}neq 0.$ Therefore, there is a non-zero vector $uin M$ such that for each integer $1le kle n, uperp f_k.$



        Of course, $u=sum^n_{k=1}langle u,e_krangle e_k, $ so that $|u|^2=sum^n_{k=1}|langle u,e_k-f_krangle |^2. $ Now, apply Cauchy-Schwarz to this last item and then use the hypothesis:



        $|u|^2le sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot |e_k-f_k|^2<sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2=ncdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2cdot |u|^2=|u|^2$, and so we get that $|u|^2<|u|^2$, which is absurd.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        If the $f_k$ are not linearly independent, then they can not span the space, so



        $M=$span$({{f_k}})^{perp}neq 0.$ Therefore, there is a non-zero vector $uin M$ such that for each integer $1le kle n, uperp f_k.$



        Of course, $u=sum^n_{k=1}langle u,e_krangle e_k, $ so that $|u|^2=sum^n_{k=1}|langle u,e_k-f_krangle |^2. $ Now, apply Cauchy-Schwarz to this last item and then use the hypothesis:



        $|u|^2le sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot |e_k-f_k|^2<sum^n_{k=1}|u|^2cdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2=ncdot left ( frac{1}{sqrt n} right )^2cdot |u|^2=|u|^2$, and so we get that $|u|^2<|u|^2$, which is absurd.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 24 at 17:46









        MatematletaMatematleta

        11.5k2920




        11.5k2920























            3












            $begingroup$

            The condition
            $|f_k - e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$ can be written
            $$ |(I-T)e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$$
            Where $T:Xto X$ is the linear map on $X=operatorname{span}{e_1dots e_n}$ that maps $e_k mapsto f_k$, and $I:Xmapsto X$ is the identity map.



            Suppose now $x=sum_i x_i e_i $ is an arbitrary vector in $X$ with $|x|^2_2 = sum_i x_i ^2 = 1$. Then
            begin{align} &|(I-T)x|_2
            \ le& sum_{i=1}^n | x_i|| (I-T) e_i|_2
            \ le &sqrt{sum_i |x_i|^2} sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} \ =& sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2}
            end{align}



            Thus the operator norm $|I-T|_{op} := sup_{x: |x|_2 = 1} |(I-T)x|_2 le sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} < 1 $. By results on Neumann series (see Proof of Neumann Lemma ), $T$ is invertible, and the result follows.



            Also, here's a picture showing why a strict inequality is important:
            counterexample






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              the inequality is strict
              $endgroup$
              – Thinking
              Jan 24 at 18:03










            • $begingroup$
              @Thinking oops, yes, and thats important. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Calvin Khor
              Jan 24 at 18:03
















            3












            $begingroup$

            The condition
            $|f_k - e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$ can be written
            $$ |(I-T)e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$$
            Where $T:Xto X$ is the linear map on $X=operatorname{span}{e_1dots e_n}$ that maps $e_k mapsto f_k$, and $I:Xmapsto X$ is the identity map.



            Suppose now $x=sum_i x_i e_i $ is an arbitrary vector in $X$ with $|x|^2_2 = sum_i x_i ^2 = 1$. Then
            begin{align} &|(I-T)x|_2
            \ le& sum_{i=1}^n | x_i|| (I-T) e_i|_2
            \ le &sqrt{sum_i |x_i|^2} sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} \ =& sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2}
            end{align}



            Thus the operator norm $|I-T|_{op} := sup_{x: |x|_2 = 1} |(I-T)x|_2 le sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} < 1 $. By results on Neumann series (see Proof of Neumann Lemma ), $T$ is invertible, and the result follows.



            Also, here's a picture showing why a strict inequality is important:
            counterexample






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              the inequality is strict
              $endgroup$
              – Thinking
              Jan 24 at 18:03










            • $begingroup$
              @Thinking oops, yes, and thats important. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Calvin Khor
              Jan 24 at 18:03














            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            The condition
            $|f_k - e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$ can be written
            $$ |(I-T)e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$$
            Where $T:Xto X$ is the linear map on $X=operatorname{span}{e_1dots e_n}$ that maps $e_k mapsto f_k$, and $I:Xmapsto X$ is the identity map.



            Suppose now $x=sum_i x_i e_i $ is an arbitrary vector in $X$ with $|x|^2_2 = sum_i x_i ^2 = 1$. Then
            begin{align} &|(I-T)x|_2
            \ le& sum_{i=1}^n | x_i|| (I-T) e_i|_2
            \ le &sqrt{sum_i |x_i|^2} sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} \ =& sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2}
            end{align}



            Thus the operator norm $|I-T|_{op} := sup_{x: |x|_2 = 1} |(I-T)x|_2 le sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} < 1 $. By results on Neumann series (see Proof of Neumann Lemma ), $T$ is invertible, and the result follows.



            Also, here's a picture showing why a strict inequality is important:
            counterexample






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            The condition
            $|f_k - e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$ can be written
            $$ |(I-T)e_k|_2 < frac{1}{sqrt n}$$
            Where $T:Xto X$ is the linear map on $X=operatorname{span}{e_1dots e_n}$ that maps $e_k mapsto f_k$, and $I:Xmapsto X$ is the identity map.



            Suppose now $x=sum_i x_i e_i $ is an arbitrary vector in $X$ with $|x|^2_2 = sum_i x_i ^2 = 1$. Then
            begin{align} &|(I-T)x|_2
            \ le& sum_{i=1}^n | x_i|| (I-T) e_i|_2
            \ le &sqrt{sum_i |x_i|^2} sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} \ =& sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2}
            end{align}



            Thus the operator norm $|I-T|_{op} := sup_{x: |x|_2 = 1} |(I-T)x|_2 le sqrt{sum_i | (I-T) e_i|^2_2} < 1 $. By results on Neumann series (see Proof of Neumann Lemma ), $T$ is invertible, and the result follows.



            Also, here's a picture showing why a strict inequality is important:
            counterexample







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 25 at 0:28

























            answered Jan 24 at 17:52









            Calvin KhorCalvin Khor

            12.3k21438




            12.3k21438












            • $begingroup$
              the inequality is strict
              $endgroup$
              – Thinking
              Jan 24 at 18:03










            • $begingroup$
              @Thinking oops, yes, and thats important. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Calvin Khor
              Jan 24 at 18:03


















            • $begingroup$
              the inequality is strict
              $endgroup$
              – Thinking
              Jan 24 at 18:03










            • $begingroup$
              @Thinking oops, yes, and thats important. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Calvin Khor
              Jan 24 at 18:03
















            $begingroup$
            the inequality is strict
            $endgroup$
            – Thinking
            Jan 24 at 18:03




            $begingroup$
            the inequality is strict
            $endgroup$
            – Thinking
            Jan 24 at 18:03












            $begingroup$
            @Thinking oops, yes, and thats important. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Calvin Khor
            Jan 24 at 18:03




            $begingroup$
            @Thinking oops, yes, and thats important. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Calvin Khor
            Jan 24 at 18:03



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