prime $p$ different from $3$ is of the form $3k+1$ if and only if $p$ divides number of form $c^2+c+1$












3














Prove that prime $p$ different from $3$ is of the form $3k+1$ if and only if $p$ divides number of from $c^2+c+1$



i am trying but i did't get answer any hint please










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  • Can we use the fact that $p=3k+1$ implies $p=m^2+mn+n^2$?
    – Oscar Lanzi
    Nov 2 '17 at 16:54










  • @OscarLanzi..sry i dont knoq
    – Inverse Problem
    Nov 2 '17 at 17:08










  • Hmm... so you could use this then to prove there are infinitely many primes $equiv 1 pmod{3}$: for any finite list of such primes $p_1, ldots, p_n$, set $c := 3 p_1 cdots p_n$, and then any prime divisor of $c^2 + c + 1$ would have to be a prime $equiv 1 pmod{3}$ and not in the list.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01






  • 4




    If $c^2+c+1equiv0$, then $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)equiv0$, too. So $c$ is of order $3$. Then apply Lagrange. For the other direction use that $Bbb{Z}_p^*$ is cyclic of order $p-1$, hence has an element of order three. Work those same congruences backwards.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01












  • @JohnWatson I am sure this is a duplicate. But I didn't find one in my first search. I may try again.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:36
















3














Prove that prime $p$ different from $3$ is of the form $3k+1$ if and only if $p$ divides number of from $c^2+c+1$



i am trying but i did't get answer any hint please










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Can we use the fact that $p=3k+1$ implies $p=m^2+mn+n^2$?
    – Oscar Lanzi
    Nov 2 '17 at 16:54










  • @OscarLanzi..sry i dont knoq
    – Inverse Problem
    Nov 2 '17 at 17:08










  • Hmm... so you could use this then to prove there are infinitely many primes $equiv 1 pmod{3}$: for any finite list of such primes $p_1, ldots, p_n$, set $c := 3 p_1 cdots p_n$, and then any prime divisor of $c^2 + c + 1$ would have to be a prime $equiv 1 pmod{3}$ and not in the list.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01






  • 4




    If $c^2+c+1equiv0$, then $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)equiv0$, too. So $c$ is of order $3$. Then apply Lagrange. For the other direction use that $Bbb{Z}_p^*$ is cyclic of order $p-1$, hence has an element of order three. Work those same congruences backwards.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01












  • @JohnWatson I am sure this is a duplicate. But I didn't find one in my first search. I may try again.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:36














3












3








3







Prove that prime $p$ different from $3$ is of the form $3k+1$ if and only if $p$ divides number of from $c^2+c+1$



i am trying but i did't get answer any hint please










share|cite|improve this question















Prove that prime $p$ different from $3$ is of the form $3k+1$ if and only if $p$ divides number of from $c^2+c+1$



i am trying but i did't get answer any hint please







number-theory elementary-number-theory prime-numbers






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited yesterday









greedoid

38.2k114797




38.2k114797










asked Nov 2 '17 at 16:41







user495078



















  • Can we use the fact that $p=3k+1$ implies $p=m^2+mn+n^2$?
    – Oscar Lanzi
    Nov 2 '17 at 16:54










  • @OscarLanzi..sry i dont knoq
    – Inverse Problem
    Nov 2 '17 at 17:08










  • Hmm... so you could use this then to prove there are infinitely many primes $equiv 1 pmod{3}$: for any finite list of such primes $p_1, ldots, p_n$, set $c := 3 p_1 cdots p_n$, and then any prime divisor of $c^2 + c + 1$ would have to be a prime $equiv 1 pmod{3}$ and not in the list.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01






  • 4




    If $c^2+c+1equiv0$, then $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)equiv0$, too. So $c$ is of order $3$. Then apply Lagrange. For the other direction use that $Bbb{Z}_p^*$ is cyclic of order $p-1$, hence has an element of order three. Work those same congruences backwards.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01












  • @JohnWatson I am sure this is a duplicate. But I didn't find one in my first search. I may try again.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:36


















  • Can we use the fact that $p=3k+1$ implies $p=m^2+mn+n^2$?
    – Oscar Lanzi
    Nov 2 '17 at 16:54










  • @OscarLanzi..sry i dont knoq
    – Inverse Problem
    Nov 2 '17 at 17:08










  • Hmm... so you could use this then to prove there are infinitely many primes $equiv 1 pmod{3}$: for any finite list of such primes $p_1, ldots, p_n$, set $c := 3 p_1 cdots p_n$, and then any prime divisor of $c^2 + c + 1$ would have to be a prime $equiv 1 pmod{3}$ and not in the list.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01






  • 4




    If $c^2+c+1equiv0$, then $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)equiv0$, too. So $c$ is of order $3$. Then apply Lagrange. For the other direction use that $Bbb{Z}_p^*$ is cyclic of order $p-1$, hence has an element of order three. Work those same congruences backwards.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:01












  • @JohnWatson I am sure this is a duplicate. But I didn't find one in my first search. I may try again.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 2 '17 at 18:36
















Can we use the fact that $p=3k+1$ implies $p=m^2+mn+n^2$?
– Oscar Lanzi
Nov 2 '17 at 16:54




Can we use the fact that $p=3k+1$ implies $p=m^2+mn+n^2$?
– Oscar Lanzi
Nov 2 '17 at 16:54












@OscarLanzi..sry i dont knoq
– Inverse Problem
Nov 2 '17 at 17:08




@OscarLanzi..sry i dont knoq
– Inverse Problem
Nov 2 '17 at 17:08












Hmm... so you could use this then to prove there are infinitely many primes $equiv 1 pmod{3}$: for any finite list of such primes $p_1, ldots, p_n$, set $c := 3 p_1 cdots p_n$, and then any prime divisor of $c^2 + c + 1$ would have to be a prime $equiv 1 pmod{3}$ and not in the list.
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 2 '17 at 18:01




Hmm... so you could use this then to prove there are infinitely many primes $equiv 1 pmod{3}$: for any finite list of such primes $p_1, ldots, p_n$, set $c := 3 p_1 cdots p_n$, and then any prime divisor of $c^2 + c + 1$ would have to be a prime $equiv 1 pmod{3}$ and not in the list.
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 2 '17 at 18:01




4




4




If $c^2+c+1equiv0$, then $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)equiv0$, too. So $c$ is of order $3$. Then apply Lagrange. For the other direction use that $Bbb{Z}_p^*$ is cyclic of order $p-1$, hence has an element of order three. Work those same congruences backwards.
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 2 '17 at 18:01






If $c^2+c+1equiv0$, then $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)equiv0$, too. So $c$ is of order $3$. Then apply Lagrange. For the other direction use that $Bbb{Z}_p^*$ is cyclic of order $p-1$, hence has an element of order three. Work those same congruences backwards.
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 2 '17 at 18:01














@JohnWatson I am sure this is a duplicate. But I didn't find one in my first search. I may try again.
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 2 '17 at 18:36




@JohnWatson I am sure this is a duplicate. But I didn't find one in my first search. I may try again.
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 2 '17 at 18:36










3 Answers
3






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oldest

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3














Notice that if $pequiv 1$ mod 3, then $3$ divides $p-1=phi(p)$ where $phi$ is the euler function. This implies that there exists $c$ not congruent to 1 mod $p$ such that $c^3equiv 1$ mod p, (this is a fact from group theory). From this you can conclude that
$p$ divides $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)$. Since $p$ doesn't divide $c-1$ you have that $c^2+c+1$.



The other direction shouldn't be that hard.



(I just noticed that this is the solution Jyrki said in the comments).






share|cite|improve this answer































    1














    Solution with Legendre symbol.



    Say $p=6k+r$ where $rin {1,5}$ ($r$ can't be $0,2,3$ and $4$).



    begin{eqnarray*}
    pmid c^2+c+1 &Longleftrightarrow & pmid (2c+1)^2+3\
    &Longleftrightarrow & -3equiv_p (2c+1)^2\
    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-3over p}Big) =1 \
    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
    &Longleftrightarrow & (-1)^{p-1over 2}cdot (-1)^{big[{p+1over 6} big]}=1\
    &Longleftrightarrow & {p-1over 2}+ Big[{p+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
    &Longleftrightarrow & 3k+{r-1over 2}+ kBig[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
    &Longleftrightarrow & {r-1over 2}+ Big[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
    &Longleftrightarrow & r=1
    end{eqnarray*}





    Second solution (only one way)



    Perhaps it would be easyer to see that $$c^2+c+1 equiv _6 1,3$$
    Each prime that divide $c^2+c+1$ is $3$ or $6k+r$ where $r=1$ or $r=5$.
    It is easy to see that the sets $$A={6a+1;;ain mathbb{Z}}$$ and $$B= {6b+5;;bin mathbb{Z}}$$
    are closed for multiplication. And if we multiply $xin A$ and $yin B$ we get $xyin B$.



    So if there is at least one $p equiv_6 5$, then product of all primes would be $equiv_6 5$ but this can be.






    share|cite|improve this answer































      0














      Solution using Einsenstein integers



      The Eisenstein ring $E:=mathbf Z [omega]$ is the ring of integers of the quadratic field $mathbf Q(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive cubic root of unity. $E$ is a PID (even a Euclidian domain) in which the decomposition of the rational primes $p$ is classically known : (i) $p=3$ is totally ramified, more precisely $3$ is associate to $(1-omega)^2$ ; (ii) $pequiv-1pmod 3$ is inert, i.e. $p$ remains prime in $E$ ; (iii) $pequiv 1pmod 3$ is totally split, i.e. $p=pi.bar{pi}$, the product of two conjugates primes of $E$. The splitting case is equivalent to $p=N(pi)$ , where the norm $N$ is such that $N(a+bomega)=a^2 + b^2 - ab$ (see the hint of @Oscar Lanzi). Since $E$ is a PID, for any prime $pi$, the quotient $E/pi E$ is a finite field of order $N(pi)$, and case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $mathbf Z/pmathbf Z cong E/pi E$, or that $ (E/pi E)^*$ is a cyclic group of order $N(pi)-1=p-1$.



      Now, sticking to case (iii), fix a generator $g$ of $(E/pi E)^*$, so that $x=g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a cubic root of unity in $(E/pi E)^*$. But $x^3 - 1= (x-1)(x-omega)(x-omega^2)$ in $ (E/pi E)^*$, where the three cubic roots of unity are easily seen to be distinct. It follows that case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a root of $(x-omega)(x-omega^2)=x^2 +x + 1$. Using the isomorphism $mathbf Z/pmathbf Zcong E/pi E$, this is in turn equivalent to $c^2+c+1=0$ in $(mathbf Z/pmathbf Z)^*$, where $c$ corresponds to $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ .



      Of course, the above argument appears unduly complicated compared to those of @Jose Cruz or @John Watson. But it presents the advantage to surrepticiously introduce Legendre's symbol of cubic residues, which can be defined as follows. In both cases (ii) and (iii), if $pi$ is a prime of $E$ not dividing $alpha in E$, obviously $alpha^{N(pi)-1}equiv 1pmod pi$. Note that $N(pi)=p^2$ in case (ii), so that, as previously, $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv 1, omega,omega^2 pmod pi$ in both cases (ii) and (iii). The Legendre symbol $(alpha /pi)_3$ is then defined to be the unique cubic root of unity s.t. $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv (alpha /pi)_3pmod pi$. The cyclicity of $(E/pi E)^*$ implies that $(alpha /pi)_3=1$ iff $x^3equiv alpha pmod pi$ has a solution in $E$ .






      share|cite|improve this answer























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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        active

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        active

        oldest

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        3














        Notice that if $pequiv 1$ mod 3, then $3$ divides $p-1=phi(p)$ where $phi$ is the euler function. This implies that there exists $c$ not congruent to 1 mod $p$ such that $c^3equiv 1$ mod p, (this is a fact from group theory). From this you can conclude that
        $p$ divides $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)$. Since $p$ doesn't divide $c-1$ you have that $c^2+c+1$.



        The other direction shouldn't be that hard.



        (I just noticed that this is the solution Jyrki said in the comments).






        share|cite|improve this answer




























          3














          Notice that if $pequiv 1$ mod 3, then $3$ divides $p-1=phi(p)$ where $phi$ is the euler function. This implies that there exists $c$ not congruent to 1 mod $p$ such that $c^3equiv 1$ mod p, (this is a fact from group theory). From this you can conclude that
          $p$ divides $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)$. Since $p$ doesn't divide $c-1$ you have that $c^2+c+1$.



          The other direction shouldn't be that hard.



          (I just noticed that this is the solution Jyrki said in the comments).






          share|cite|improve this answer


























            3












            3








            3






            Notice that if $pequiv 1$ mod 3, then $3$ divides $p-1=phi(p)$ where $phi$ is the euler function. This implies that there exists $c$ not congruent to 1 mod $p$ such that $c^3equiv 1$ mod p, (this is a fact from group theory). From this you can conclude that
            $p$ divides $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)$. Since $p$ doesn't divide $c-1$ you have that $c^2+c+1$.



            The other direction shouldn't be that hard.



            (I just noticed that this is the solution Jyrki said in the comments).






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Notice that if $pequiv 1$ mod 3, then $3$ divides $p-1=phi(p)$ where $phi$ is the euler function. This implies that there exists $c$ not congruent to 1 mod $p$ such that $c^3equiv 1$ mod p, (this is a fact from group theory). From this you can conclude that
            $p$ divides $c^3-1=(c-1)(c^2+c+1)$. Since $p$ doesn't divide $c-1$ you have that $c^2+c+1$.



            The other direction shouldn't be that hard.



            (I just noticed that this is the solution Jyrki said in the comments).







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 2 '17 at 18:12

























            answered Nov 2 '17 at 18:06









            JoseCruz

            481210




            481210























                1














                Solution with Legendre symbol.



                Say $p=6k+r$ where $rin {1,5}$ ($r$ can't be $0,2,3$ and $4$).



                begin{eqnarray*}
                pmid c^2+c+1 &Longleftrightarrow & pmid (2c+1)^2+3\
                &Longleftrightarrow & -3equiv_p (2c+1)^2\
                &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-3over p}Big) =1 \
                &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                &Longleftrightarrow & (-1)^{p-1over 2}cdot (-1)^{big[{p+1over 6} big]}=1\
                &Longleftrightarrow & {p-1over 2}+ Big[{p+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                &Longleftrightarrow & 3k+{r-1over 2}+ kBig[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                &Longleftrightarrow & {r-1over 2}+ Big[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                &Longleftrightarrow & r=1
                end{eqnarray*}





                Second solution (only one way)



                Perhaps it would be easyer to see that $$c^2+c+1 equiv _6 1,3$$
                Each prime that divide $c^2+c+1$ is $3$ or $6k+r$ where $r=1$ or $r=5$.
                It is easy to see that the sets $$A={6a+1;;ain mathbb{Z}}$$ and $$B= {6b+5;;bin mathbb{Z}}$$
                are closed for multiplication. And if we multiply $xin A$ and $yin B$ we get $xyin B$.



                So if there is at least one $p equiv_6 5$, then product of all primes would be $equiv_6 5$ but this can be.






                share|cite|improve this answer




























                  1














                  Solution with Legendre symbol.



                  Say $p=6k+r$ where $rin {1,5}$ ($r$ can't be $0,2,3$ and $4$).



                  begin{eqnarray*}
                  pmid c^2+c+1 &Longleftrightarrow & pmid (2c+1)^2+3\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & -3equiv_p (2c+1)^2\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-3over p}Big) =1 \
                  &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & (-1)^{p-1over 2}cdot (-1)^{big[{p+1over 6} big]}=1\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & {p-1over 2}+ Big[{p+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & 3k+{r-1over 2}+ kBig[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & {r-1over 2}+ Big[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                  &Longleftrightarrow & r=1
                  end{eqnarray*}





                  Second solution (only one way)



                  Perhaps it would be easyer to see that $$c^2+c+1 equiv _6 1,3$$
                  Each prime that divide $c^2+c+1$ is $3$ or $6k+r$ where $r=1$ or $r=5$.
                  It is easy to see that the sets $$A={6a+1;;ain mathbb{Z}}$$ and $$B= {6b+5;;bin mathbb{Z}}$$
                  are closed for multiplication. And if we multiply $xin A$ and $yin B$ we get $xyin B$.



                  So if there is at least one $p equiv_6 5$, then product of all primes would be $equiv_6 5$ but this can be.






                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                    1












                    1








                    1






                    Solution with Legendre symbol.



                    Say $p=6k+r$ where $rin {1,5}$ ($r$ can't be $0,2,3$ and $4$).



                    begin{eqnarray*}
                    pmid c^2+c+1 &Longleftrightarrow & pmid (2c+1)^2+3\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & -3equiv_p (2c+1)^2\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-3over p}Big) =1 \
                    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & (-1)^{p-1over 2}cdot (-1)^{big[{p+1over 6} big]}=1\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & {p-1over 2}+ Big[{p+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & 3k+{r-1over 2}+ kBig[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & {r-1over 2}+ Big[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & r=1
                    end{eqnarray*}





                    Second solution (only one way)



                    Perhaps it would be easyer to see that $$c^2+c+1 equiv _6 1,3$$
                    Each prime that divide $c^2+c+1$ is $3$ or $6k+r$ where $r=1$ or $r=5$.
                    It is easy to see that the sets $$A={6a+1;;ain mathbb{Z}}$$ and $$B= {6b+5;;bin mathbb{Z}}$$
                    are closed for multiplication. And if we multiply $xin A$ and $yin B$ we get $xyin B$.



                    So if there is at least one $p equiv_6 5$, then product of all primes would be $equiv_6 5$ but this can be.






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Solution with Legendre symbol.



                    Say $p=6k+r$ where $rin {1,5}$ ($r$ can't be $0,2,3$ and $4$).



                    begin{eqnarray*}
                    pmid c^2+c+1 &Longleftrightarrow & pmid (2c+1)^2+3\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & -3equiv_p (2c+1)^2\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-3over p}Big) =1 \
                    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & Big({-1over p}Big)cdot Big({3over p}Big)=1\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & (-1)^{p-1over 2}cdot (-1)^{big[{p+1over 6} big]}=1\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & {p-1over 2}+ Big[{p+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & 3k+{r-1over 2}+ kBig[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & {r-1over 2}+ Big[{r+1over 6} Big]equiv_2 0\
                    &Longleftrightarrow & r=1
                    end{eqnarray*}





                    Second solution (only one way)



                    Perhaps it would be easyer to see that $$c^2+c+1 equiv _6 1,3$$
                    Each prime that divide $c^2+c+1$ is $3$ or $6k+r$ where $r=1$ or $r=5$.
                    It is easy to see that the sets $$A={6a+1;;ain mathbb{Z}}$$ and $$B= {6b+5;;bin mathbb{Z}}$$
                    are closed for multiplication. And if we multiply $xin A$ and $yin B$ we get $xyin B$.



                    So if there is at least one $p equiv_6 5$, then product of all primes would be $equiv_6 5$ but this can be.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Nov 2 '17 at 17:51

























                    answered Nov 2 '17 at 17:29









                    greedoid

                    38.2k114797




                    38.2k114797























                        0














                        Solution using Einsenstein integers



                        The Eisenstein ring $E:=mathbf Z [omega]$ is the ring of integers of the quadratic field $mathbf Q(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive cubic root of unity. $E$ is a PID (even a Euclidian domain) in which the decomposition of the rational primes $p$ is classically known : (i) $p=3$ is totally ramified, more precisely $3$ is associate to $(1-omega)^2$ ; (ii) $pequiv-1pmod 3$ is inert, i.e. $p$ remains prime in $E$ ; (iii) $pequiv 1pmod 3$ is totally split, i.e. $p=pi.bar{pi}$, the product of two conjugates primes of $E$. The splitting case is equivalent to $p=N(pi)$ , where the norm $N$ is such that $N(a+bomega)=a^2 + b^2 - ab$ (see the hint of @Oscar Lanzi). Since $E$ is a PID, for any prime $pi$, the quotient $E/pi E$ is a finite field of order $N(pi)$, and case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $mathbf Z/pmathbf Z cong E/pi E$, or that $ (E/pi E)^*$ is a cyclic group of order $N(pi)-1=p-1$.



                        Now, sticking to case (iii), fix a generator $g$ of $(E/pi E)^*$, so that $x=g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a cubic root of unity in $(E/pi E)^*$. But $x^3 - 1= (x-1)(x-omega)(x-omega^2)$ in $ (E/pi E)^*$, where the three cubic roots of unity are easily seen to be distinct. It follows that case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a root of $(x-omega)(x-omega^2)=x^2 +x + 1$. Using the isomorphism $mathbf Z/pmathbf Zcong E/pi E$, this is in turn equivalent to $c^2+c+1=0$ in $(mathbf Z/pmathbf Z)^*$, where $c$ corresponds to $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ .



                        Of course, the above argument appears unduly complicated compared to those of @Jose Cruz or @John Watson. But it presents the advantage to surrepticiously introduce Legendre's symbol of cubic residues, which can be defined as follows. In both cases (ii) and (iii), if $pi$ is a prime of $E$ not dividing $alpha in E$, obviously $alpha^{N(pi)-1}equiv 1pmod pi$. Note that $N(pi)=p^2$ in case (ii), so that, as previously, $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv 1, omega,omega^2 pmod pi$ in both cases (ii) and (iii). The Legendre symbol $(alpha /pi)_3$ is then defined to be the unique cubic root of unity s.t. $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv (alpha /pi)_3pmod pi$. The cyclicity of $(E/pi E)^*$ implies that $(alpha /pi)_3=1$ iff $x^3equiv alpha pmod pi$ has a solution in $E$ .






                        share|cite|improve this answer




























                          0














                          Solution using Einsenstein integers



                          The Eisenstein ring $E:=mathbf Z [omega]$ is the ring of integers of the quadratic field $mathbf Q(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive cubic root of unity. $E$ is a PID (even a Euclidian domain) in which the decomposition of the rational primes $p$ is classically known : (i) $p=3$ is totally ramified, more precisely $3$ is associate to $(1-omega)^2$ ; (ii) $pequiv-1pmod 3$ is inert, i.e. $p$ remains prime in $E$ ; (iii) $pequiv 1pmod 3$ is totally split, i.e. $p=pi.bar{pi}$, the product of two conjugates primes of $E$. The splitting case is equivalent to $p=N(pi)$ , where the norm $N$ is such that $N(a+bomega)=a^2 + b^2 - ab$ (see the hint of @Oscar Lanzi). Since $E$ is a PID, for any prime $pi$, the quotient $E/pi E$ is a finite field of order $N(pi)$, and case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $mathbf Z/pmathbf Z cong E/pi E$, or that $ (E/pi E)^*$ is a cyclic group of order $N(pi)-1=p-1$.



                          Now, sticking to case (iii), fix a generator $g$ of $(E/pi E)^*$, so that $x=g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a cubic root of unity in $(E/pi E)^*$. But $x^3 - 1= (x-1)(x-omega)(x-omega^2)$ in $ (E/pi E)^*$, where the three cubic roots of unity are easily seen to be distinct. It follows that case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a root of $(x-omega)(x-omega^2)=x^2 +x + 1$. Using the isomorphism $mathbf Z/pmathbf Zcong E/pi E$, this is in turn equivalent to $c^2+c+1=0$ in $(mathbf Z/pmathbf Z)^*$, where $c$ corresponds to $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ .



                          Of course, the above argument appears unduly complicated compared to those of @Jose Cruz or @John Watson. But it presents the advantage to surrepticiously introduce Legendre's symbol of cubic residues, which can be defined as follows. In both cases (ii) and (iii), if $pi$ is a prime of $E$ not dividing $alpha in E$, obviously $alpha^{N(pi)-1}equiv 1pmod pi$. Note that $N(pi)=p^2$ in case (ii), so that, as previously, $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv 1, omega,omega^2 pmod pi$ in both cases (ii) and (iii). The Legendre symbol $(alpha /pi)_3$ is then defined to be the unique cubic root of unity s.t. $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv (alpha /pi)_3pmod pi$. The cyclicity of $(E/pi E)^*$ implies that $(alpha /pi)_3=1$ iff $x^3equiv alpha pmod pi$ has a solution in $E$ .






                          share|cite|improve this answer


























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            Solution using Einsenstein integers



                            The Eisenstein ring $E:=mathbf Z [omega]$ is the ring of integers of the quadratic field $mathbf Q(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive cubic root of unity. $E$ is a PID (even a Euclidian domain) in which the decomposition of the rational primes $p$ is classically known : (i) $p=3$ is totally ramified, more precisely $3$ is associate to $(1-omega)^2$ ; (ii) $pequiv-1pmod 3$ is inert, i.e. $p$ remains prime in $E$ ; (iii) $pequiv 1pmod 3$ is totally split, i.e. $p=pi.bar{pi}$, the product of two conjugates primes of $E$. The splitting case is equivalent to $p=N(pi)$ , where the norm $N$ is such that $N(a+bomega)=a^2 + b^2 - ab$ (see the hint of @Oscar Lanzi). Since $E$ is a PID, for any prime $pi$, the quotient $E/pi E$ is a finite field of order $N(pi)$, and case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $mathbf Z/pmathbf Z cong E/pi E$, or that $ (E/pi E)^*$ is a cyclic group of order $N(pi)-1=p-1$.



                            Now, sticking to case (iii), fix a generator $g$ of $(E/pi E)^*$, so that $x=g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a cubic root of unity in $(E/pi E)^*$. But $x^3 - 1= (x-1)(x-omega)(x-omega^2)$ in $ (E/pi E)^*$, where the three cubic roots of unity are easily seen to be distinct. It follows that case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a root of $(x-omega)(x-omega^2)=x^2 +x + 1$. Using the isomorphism $mathbf Z/pmathbf Zcong E/pi E$, this is in turn equivalent to $c^2+c+1=0$ in $(mathbf Z/pmathbf Z)^*$, where $c$ corresponds to $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ .



                            Of course, the above argument appears unduly complicated compared to those of @Jose Cruz or @John Watson. But it presents the advantage to surrepticiously introduce Legendre's symbol of cubic residues, which can be defined as follows. In both cases (ii) and (iii), if $pi$ is a prime of $E$ not dividing $alpha in E$, obviously $alpha^{N(pi)-1}equiv 1pmod pi$. Note that $N(pi)=p^2$ in case (ii), so that, as previously, $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv 1, omega,omega^2 pmod pi$ in both cases (ii) and (iii). The Legendre symbol $(alpha /pi)_3$ is then defined to be the unique cubic root of unity s.t. $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv (alpha /pi)_3pmod pi$. The cyclicity of $(E/pi E)^*$ implies that $(alpha /pi)_3=1$ iff $x^3equiv alpha pmod pi$ has a solution in $E$ .






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            Solution using Einsenstein integers



                            The Eisenstein ring $E:=mathbf Z [omega]$ is the ring of integers of the quadratic field $mathbf Q(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive cubic root of unity. $E$ is a PID (even a Euclidian domain) in which the decomposition of the rational primes $p$ is classically known : (i) $p=3$ is totally ramified, more precisely $3$ is associate to $(1-omega)^2$ ; (ii) $pequiv-1pmod 3$ is inert, i.e. $p$ remains prime in $E$ ; (iii) $pequiv 1pmod 3$ is totally split, i.e. $p=pi.bar{pi}$, the product of two conjugates primes of $E$. The splitting case is equivalent to $p=N(pi)$ , where the norm $N$ is such that $N(a+bomega)=a^2 + b^2 - ab$ (see the hint of @Oscar Lanzi). Since $E$ is a PID, for any prime $pi$, the quotient $E/pi E$ is a finite field of order $N(pi)$, and case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $mathbf Z/pmathbf Z cong E/pi E$, or that $ (E/pi E)^*$ is a cyclic group of order $N(pi)-1=p-1$.



                            Now, sticking to case (iii), fix a generator $g$ of $(E/pi E)^*$, so that $x=g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a cubic root of unity in $(E/pi E)^*$. But $x^3 - 1= (x-1)(x-omega)(x-omega^2)$ in $ (E/pi E)^*$, where the three cubic roots of unity are easily seen to be distinct. It follows that case (iii) is equivalent to saying that $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ is a root of $(x-omega)(x-omega^2)=x^2 +x + 1$. Using the isomorphism $mathbf Z/pmathbf Zcong E/pi E$, this is in turn equivalent to $c^2+c+1=0$ in $(mathbf Z/pmathbf Z)^*$, where $c$ corresponds to $g^{frac {p-1}{3}}$ .



                            Of course, the above argument appears unduly complicated compared to those of @Jose Cruz or @John Watson. But it presents the advantage to surrepticiously introduce Legendre's symbol of cubic residues, which can be defined as follows. In both cases (ii) and (iii), if $pi$ is a prime of $E$ not dividing $alpha in E$, obviously $alpha^{N(pi)-1}equiv 1pmod pi$. Note that $N(pi)=p^2$ in case (ii), so that, as previously, $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv 1, omega,omega^2 pmod pi$ in both cases (ii) and (iii). The Legendre symbol $(alpha /pi)_3$ is then defined to be the unique cubic root of unity s.t. $alpha^{frac{N(pi)-1}{3}}equiv (alpha /pi)_3pmod pi$. The cyclicity of $(E/pi E)^*$ implies that $(alpha /pi)_3=1$ iff $x^3equiv alpha pmod pi$ has a solution in $E$ .







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                            edited Nov 4 '17 at 14:37

























                            answered Nov 4 '17 at 13:52









                            nguyen quang do

                            8,3911723




                            8,3911723






























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