Homomorphism $x^i mapsto y^i$ and the order of $x$ and $y$
$begingroup$
I am trying to answer the following question:
Let $G$ and $H$ be two cyclic groups generated by $x$ and $y$
respectively. Determine the condition on the orders $m$ and $n$ of $x$ and
$y$ so that the map $f(x^i)= y^i$ is a homomorphism.
How I attempted to solve the question in the following way:
Let $r$ and $s$ be two arbitrary integers. Then
$$f(x^rx^s) = f(x^{r+s})=y^{r+s}=y^ry^s=f(x^r)f(x^s)$$
Since we made no assumptions about the orders of $x$ and $y$, $f$ is an homomorphism from $G$ to $H$ no matter what the orders of $x$ and $y$ are.
I don't feel confident with my proof and I would love for someone to check it. Finally, I am aware there are some theorems about the order elements of a groups but I am supposed to solve the problem without them.
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to answer the following question:
Let $G$ and $H$ be two cyclic groups generated by $x$ and $y$
respectively. Determine the condition on the orders $m$ and $n$ of $x$ and
$y$ so that the map $f(x^i)= y^i$ is a homomorphism.
How I attempted to solve the question in the following way:
Let $r$ and $s$ be two arbitrary integers. Then
$$f(x^rx^s) = f(x^{r+s})=y^{r+s}=y^ry^s=f(x^r)f(x^s)$$
Since we made no assumptions about the orders of $x$ and $y$, $f$ is an homomorphism from $G$ to $H$ no matter what the orders of $x$ and $y$ are.
I don't feel confident with my proof and I would love for someone to check it. Finally, I am aware there are some theorems about the order elements of a groups but I am supposed to solve the problem without them.
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In order to show that $f$ is a homomorphism, you need to show that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1, x_2in G$, not just for $x_1, x_2$ equal to powers or some particular element of $G$.
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:23
$begingroup$
But isn't it true that because $G=langle x rangle$ all the elements in $G$ are powers of a particular element of $G$ (namely $x$), and therefore proving $f(x^rx^s) = f(x^r)f(x^s)$ for arbitrary $r$ and $s$ is equivalent to prove it for that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1,x_2 in G$?
$endgroup$
– Lazarus
Jan 20 at 1:31
$begingroup$
It’s not true that $G=langle xrangle$ for every $xin G$. (In my first comment, I misspelled “of” as “or.”)
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to answer the following question:
Let $G$ and $H$ be two cyclic groups generated by $x$ and $y$
respectively. Determine the condition on the orders $m$ and $n$ of $x$ and
$y$ so that the map $f(x^i)= y^i$ is a homomorphism.
How I attempted to solve the question in the following way:
Let $r$ and $s$ be two arbitrary integers. Then
$$f(x^rx^s) = f(x^{r+s})=y^{r+s}=y^ry^s=f(x^r)f(x^s)$$
Since we made no assumptions about the orders of $x$ and $y$, $f$ is an homomorphism from $G$ to $H$ no matter what the orders of $x$ and $y$ are.
I don't feel confident with my proof and I would love for someone to check it. Finally, I am aware there are some theorems about the order elements of a groups but I am supposed to solve the problem without them.
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
$endgroup$
I am trying to answer the following question:
Let $G$ and $H$ be two cyclic groups generated by $x$ and $y$
respectively. Determine the condition on the orders $m$ and $n$ of $x$ and
$y$ so that the map $f(x^i)= y^i$ is a homomorphism.
How I attempted to solve the question in the following way:
Let $r$ and $s$ be two arbitrary integers. Then
$$f(x^rx^s) = f(x^{r+s})=y^{r+s}=y^ry^s=f(x^r)f(x^s)$$
Since we made no assumptions about the orders of $x$ and $y$, $f$ is an homomorphism from $G$ to $H$ no matter what the orders of $x$ and $y$ are.
I don't feel confident with my proof and I would love for someone to check it. Finally, I am aware there are some theorems about the order elements of a groups but I am supposed to solve the problem without them.
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
edited Jan 20 at 1:21
Lazarus
asked Jan 20 at 1:06
LazarusLazarus
11217
11217
$begingroup$
In order to show that $f$ is a homomorphism, you need to show that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1, x_2in G$, not just for $x_1, x_2$ equal to powers or some particular element of $G$.
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:23
$begingroup$
But isn't it true that because $G=langle x rangle$ all the elements in $G$ are powers of a particular element of $G$ (namely $x$), and therefore proving $f(x^rx^s) = f(x^r)f(x^s)$ for arbitrary $r$ and $s$ is equivalent to prove it for that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1,x_2 in G$?
$endgroup$
– Lazarus
Jan 20 at 1:31
$begingroup$
It’s not true that $G=langle xrangle$ for every $xin G$. (In my first comment, I misspelled “of” as “or.”)
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In order to show that $f$ is a homomorphism, you need to show that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1, x_2in G$, not just for $x_1, x_2$ equal to powers or some particular element of $G$.
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:23
$begingroup$
But isn't it true that because $G=langle x rangle$ all the elements in $G$ are powers of a particular element of $G$ (namely $x$), and therefore proving $f(x^rx^s) = f(x^r)f(x^s)$ for arbitrary $r$ and $s$ is equivalent to prove it for that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1,x_2 in G$?
$endgroup$
– Lazarus
Jan 20 at 1:31
$begingroup$
It’s not true that $G=langle xrangle$ for every $xin G$. (In my first comment, I misspelled “of” as “or.”)
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:36
$begingroup$
In order to show that $f$ is a homomorphism, you need to show that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1, x_2in G$, not just for $x_1, x_2$ equal to powers or some particular element of $G$.
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:23
$begingroup$
In order to show that $f$ is a homomorphism, you need to show that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1, x_2in G$, not just for $x_1, x_2$ equal to powers or some particular element of $G$.
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:23
$begingroup$
But isn't it true that because $G=langle x rangle$ all the elements in $G$ are powers of a particular element of $G$ (namely $x$), and therefore proving $f(x^rx^s) = f(x^r)f(x^s)$ for arbitrary $r$ and $s$ is equivalent to prove it for that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1,x_2 in G$?
$endgroup$
– Lazarus
Jan 20 at 1:31
$begingroup$
But isn't it true that because $G=langle x rangle$ all the elements in $G$ are powers of a particular element of $G$ (namely $x$), and therefore proving $f(x^rx^s) = f(x^r)f(x^s)$ for arbitrary $r$ and $s$ is equivalent to prove it for that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1,x_2 in G$?
$endgroup$
– Lazarus
Jan 20 at 1:31
$begingroup$
It’s not true that $G=langle xrangle$ for every $xin G$. (In my first comment, I misspelled “of” as “or.”)
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:36
$begingroup$
It’s not true that $G=langle xrangle$ for every $xin G$. (In my first comment, I misspelled “of” as “or.”)
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:36
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $g_1, g_2 in G$. We then have that $g_1=x^{k_1}$ and $g_2=x^{k_2}$ for $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{Z}$. Let $f$ be a homomorphism. Then
$$f(g_1g_2)=f(x^{k_1}x^{k_2})=f(x^{k_1+k_2})=f(g_1)f(g_2)=f(x^{k_1})(x^{k_2})=y^{k_1}y^{k_2}=y^{k_1+k_2}.$$
Further, recall that for any group homomorphism $varphi: G to H$ that for $g in G$ we have that $|varphi(g)|$ divides $|g|$.
Thus from above we must have that $|y^{k_1+k_2}|$ divides $|x^{k_1+k_2}|$. And since $G=langle x rangle$ and $H=langle y rangle$ with $|x|=m$ and $|y|=n$, it clearly follows that $G cong mathbb{Z}/mmathbb{Z}$ and $H cong mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$. Therefore
$$|y^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{n}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)},$$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}.$$
Using that the first expression divides the second, we have for $r in mathbb{Z}$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}=|y^{k_1+k_2}|cdot r = frac{nr}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)}$$
Providing us with
$$m=frac{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)} cdot nr$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Let $g_1, g_2 in G$. We then have that $g_1=x^{k_1}$ and $g_2=x^{k_2}$ for $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{Z}$. Let $f$ be a homomorphism. Then
$$f(g_1g_2)=f(x^{k_1}x^{k_2})=f(x^{k_1+k_2})=f(g_1)f(g_2)=f(x^{k_1})(x^{k_2})=y^{k_1}y^{k_2}=y^{k_1+k_2}.$$
Further, recall that for any group homomorphism $varphi: G to H$ that for $g in G$ we have that $|varphi(g)|$ divides $|g|$.
Thus from above we must have that $|y^{k_1+k_2}|$ divides $|x^{k_1+k_2}|$. And since $G=langle x rangle$ and $H=langle y rangle$ with $|x|=m$ and $|y|=n$, it clearly follows that $G cong mathbb{Z}/mmathbb{Z}$ and $H cong mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$. Therefore
$$|y^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{n}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)},$$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}.$$
Using that the first expression divides the second, we have for $r in mathbb{Z}$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}=|y^{k_1+k_2}|cdot r = frac{nr}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)}$$
Providing us with
$$m=frac{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)} cdot nr$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $g_1, g_2 in G$. We then have that $g_1=x^{k_1}$ and $g_2=x^{k_2}$ for $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{Z}$. Let $f$ be a homomorphism. Then
$$f(g_1g_2)=f(x^{k_1}x^{k_2})=f(x^{k_1+k_2})=f(g_1)f(g_2)=f(x^{k_1})(x^{k_2})=y^{k_1}y^{k_2}=y^{k_1+k_2}.$$
Further, recall that for any group homomorphism $varphi: G to H$ that for $g in G$ we have that $|varphi(g)|$ divides $|g|$.
Thus from above we must have that $|y^{k_1+k_2}|$ divides $|x^{k_1+k_2}|$. And since $G=langle x rangle$ and $H=langle y rangle$ with $|x|=m$ and $|y|=n$, it clearly follows that $G cong mathbb{Z}/mmathbb{Z}$ and $H cong mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$. Therefore
$$|y^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{n}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)},$$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}.$$
Using that the first expression divides the second, we have for $r in mathbb{Z}$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}=|y^{k_1+k_2}|cdot r = frac{nr}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)}$$
Providing us with
$$m=frac{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)} cdot nr$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $g_1, g_2 in G$. We then have that $g_1=x^{k_1}$ and $g_2=x^{k_2}$ for $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{Z}$. Let $f$ be a homomorphism. Then
$$f(g_1g_2)=f(x^{k_1}x^{k_2})=f(x^{k_1+k_2})=f(g_1)f(g_2)=f(x^{k_1})(x^{k_2})=y^{k_1}y^{k_2}=y^{k_1+k_2}.$$
Further, recall that for any group homomorphism $varphi: G to H$ that for $g in G$ we have that $|varphi(g)|$ divides $|g|$.
Thus from above we must have that $|y^{k_1+k_2}|$ divides $|x^{k_1+k_2}|$. And since $G=langle x rangle$ and $H=langle y rangle$ with $|x|=m$ and $|y|=n$, it clearly follows that $G cong mathbb{Z}/mmathbb{Z}$ and $H cong mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$. Therefore
$$|y^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{n}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)},$$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}.$$
Using that the first expression divides the second, we have for $r in mathbb{Z}$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}=|y^{k_1+k_2}|cdot r = frac{nr}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)}$$
Providing us with
$$m=frac{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)} cdot nr$$
$endgroup$
Let $g_1, g_2 in G$. We then have that $g_1=x^{k_1}$ and $g_2=x^{k_2}$ for $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{Z}$. Let $f$ be a homomorphism. Then
$$f(g_1g_2)=f(x^{k_1}x^{k_2})=f(x^{k_1+k_2})=f(g_1)f(g_2)=f(x^{k_1})(x^{k_2})=y^{k_1}y^{k_2}=y^{k_1+k_2}.$$
Further, recall that for any group homomorphism $varphi: G to H$ that for $g in G$ we have that $|varphi(g)|$ divides $|g|$.
Thus from above we must have that $|y^{k_1+k_2}|$ divides $|x^{k_1+k_2}|$. And since $G=langle x rangle$ and $H=langle y rangle$ with $|x|=m$ and $|y|=n$, it clearly follows that $G cong mathbb{Z}/mmathbb{Z}$ and $H cong mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$. Therefore
$$|y^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{n}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)},$$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}.$$
Using that the first expression divides the second, we have for $r in mathbb{Z}$
$$|x^{k_1+k_2}|=frac{m}{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}=|y^{k_1+k_2}|cdot r = frac{nr}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)}$$
Providing us with
$$m=frac{gcd(k_1+k_2,m)}{gcd(k_1+k_2,n)} cdot nr$$
answered Jan 20 at 3:23
Andrew TawfeekAndrew Tawfeek
1,8031722
1,8031722
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
In order to show that $f$ is a homomorphism, you need to show that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1, x_2in G$, not just for $x_1, x_2$ equal to powers or some particular element of $G$.
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:23
$begingroup$
But isn't it true that because $G=langle x rangle$ all the elements in $G$ are powers of a particular element of $G$ (namely $x$), and therefore proving $f(x^rx^s) = f(x^r)f(x^s)$ for arbitrary $r$ and $s$ is equivalent to prove it for that $f(x_1x_2)=f(x_1)f(x_2)$ for all $x_1,x_2 in G$?
$endgroup$
– Lazarus
Jan 20 at 1:31
$begingroup$
It’s not true that $G=langle xrangle$ for every $xin G$. (In my first comment, I misspelled “of” as “or.”)
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Jan 20 at 1:36