Coefficient of determination, why?












1












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I mean it is written in a book "Statistics for Management and Economics", that coefficient of determination is coefficient of correlation squared. Well, am I the only one to whom this is surprising fact as he expected something more clear or natural?? I mean, if someone can present me the proof why, or why some other, more natural things do not work, like I don't know, absolute value of the coefficient of correlation or something similar to Chebyshev theorem ($1-text{coefficient of correlation}$)?










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    $begingroup$
    The title of the question is very confusing, could you please edit it so it is more clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Jan 17 at 11:35
















1












$begingroup$


I mean it is written in a book "Statistics for Management and Economics", that coefficient of determination is coefficient of correlation squared. Well, am I the only one to whom this is surprising fact as he expected something more clear or natural?? I mean, if someone can present me the proof why, or why some other, more natural things do not work, like I don't know, absolute value of the coefficient of correlation or something similar to Chebyshev theorem ($1-text{coefficient of correlation}$)?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The title of the question is very confusing, could you please edit it so it is more clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Jan 17 at 11:35














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


I mean it is written in a book "Statistics for Management and Economics", that coefficient of determination is coefficient of correlation squared. Well, am I the only one to whom this is surprising fact as he expected something more clear or natural?? I mean, if someone can present me the proof why, or why some other, more natural things do not work, like I don't know, absolute value of the coefficient of correlation or something similar to Chebyshev theorem ($1-text{coefficient of correlation}$)?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I mean it is written in a book "Statistics for Management and Economics", that coefficient of determination is coefficient of correlation squared. Well, am I the only one to whom this is surprising fact as he expected something more clear or natural?? I mean, if someone can present me the proof why, or why some other, more natural things do not work, like I don't know, absolute value of the coefficient of correlation or something similar to Chebyshev theorem ($1-text{coefficient of correlation}$)?







statistics






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edited Jan 17 at 11:03









Christoph

12k1642




12k1642










asked Jan 17 at 10:54









nikolanikola

641314




641314








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The title of the question is very confusing, could you please edit it so it is more clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Jan 17 at 11:35














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The title of the question is very confusing, could you please edit it so it is more clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Jan 17 at 11:35








1




1




$begingroup$
The title of the question is very confusing, could you please edit it so it is more clear?
$endgroup$
– Yuriy S
Jan 17 at 11:35




$begingroup$
The title of the question is very confusing, could you please edit it so it is more clear?
$endgroup$
– Yuriy S
Jan 17 at 11:35










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Suppose you have $n$ paired observations $(x_i,y_i)$ on $(x,y)$ and you want to predict $y$ on the basis of $x$.



You consider the prediction model $$y=phi(x)+e$$ where $phi$ is the part of $y$ explained by $x$ through $phi$ and $e$ is the unexplained part.



Suppose you see from the scatter plot of $x$ and $y$ that $phi$ is more or less linear.



So you choose $$phi(x)=a+bx$$



Then the least square linear predictor of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is $$hat y=hat a+hat b x$$, where
$$hat a=bar y-hat bbar xquad,quad hat b=frac{operatorname{cov}(x,y)}{operatorname{var}(x)}$$



It can be shown that



begin{align}
operatorname{var}(hat y)&=operatorname{var}(hat a+hat b x)
\&=hat b^2operatorname{var}(x)
\&=r^2 operatorname{var}(y)
end{align}



, where $r$ is the correlation coefficient between $x$ and $y$.




A measure of efficacy of the predictor $phi$ is given by the proportion of variation in $y$ explained by $phi$, i.e., $$frac{operatorname{var}(hat y)}{operatorname{var}(y)}=r^2$$, which is termed as coefficient of determination.




Of course, the coefficient of determination is numerically equal to the square of the correlation coefficient, but that is hardly a definition or a motivation for the former.



When $r^2=0$ the linear prediction of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is worst, and when $r^2=1$ the prediction is perfect as $phi$ explains the variability in $y$ completely.



For more details, the following threads might be helpful:




  • Correlation Coefficient and Determination Coefficient


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/123651/geometric-interpretation-of-multiple-correlation-coefficient-r-and-coefficient?noredirect=1&lq=1


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/1447/coefficient-of-determination-r2-i-have-never-fully-grasped-the-interpretat?noredirect=1&lq=1.







share|cite|improve this answer









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  • $begingroup$
    Excellent answer
    $endgroup$
    – lux
    Jan 18 at 1:07











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Suppose you have $n$ paired observations $(x_i,y_i)$ on $(x,y)$ and you want to predict $y$ on the basis of $x$.



You consider the prediction model $$y=phi(x)+e$$ where $phi$ is the part of $y$ explained by $x$ through $phi$ and $e$ is the unexplained part.



Suppose you see from the scatter plot of $x$ and $y$ that $phi$ is more or less linear.



So you choose $$phi(x)=a+bx$$



Then the least square linear predictor of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is $$hat y=hat a+hat b x$$, where
$$hat a=bar y-hat bbar xquad,quad hat b=frac{operatorname{cov}(x,y)}{operatorname{var}(x)}$$



It can be shown that



begin{align}
operatorname{var}(hat y)&=operatorname{var}(hat a+hat b x)
\&=hat b^2operatorname{var}(x)
\&=r^2 operatorname{var}(y)
end{align}



, where $r$ is the correlation coefficient between $x$ and $y$.




A measure of efficacy of the predictor $phi$ is given by the proportion of variation in $y$ explained by $phi$, i.e., $$frac{operatorname{var}(hat y)}{operatorname{var}(y)}=r^2$$, which is termed as coefficient of determination.




Of course, the coefficient of determination is numerically equal to the square of the correlation coefficient, but that is hardly a definition or a motivation for the former.



When $r^2=0$ the linear prediction of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is worst, and when $r^2=1$ the prediction is perfect as $phi$ explains the variability in $y$ completely.



For more details, the following threads might be helpful:




  • Correlation Coefficient and Determination Coefficient


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/123651/geometric-interpretation-of-multiple-correlation-coefficient-r-and-coefficient?noredirect=1&lq=1


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/1447/coefficient-of-determination-r2-i-have-never-fully-grasped-the-interpretat?noredirect=1&lq=1.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Excellent answer
    $endgroup$
    – lux
    Jan 18 at 1:07
















2












$begingroup$

Suppose you have $n$ paired observations $(x_i,y_i)$ on $(x,y)$ and you want to predict $y$ on the basis of $x$.



You consider the prediction model $$y=phi(x)+e$$ where $phi$ is the part of $y$ explained by $x$ through $phi$ and $e$ is the unexplained part.



Suppose you see from the scatter plot of $x$ and $y$ that $phi$ is more or less linear.



So you choose $$phi(x)=a+bx$$



Then the least square linear predictor of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is $$hat y=hat a+hat b x$$, where
$$hat a=bar y-hat bbar xquad,quad hat b=frac{operatorname{cov}(x,y)}{operatorname{var}(x)}$$



It can be shown that



begin{align}
operatorname{var}(hat y)&=operatorname{var}(hat a+hat b x)
\&=hat b^2operatorname{var}(x)
\&=r^2 operatorname{var}(y)
end{align}



, where $r$ is the correlation coefficient between $x$ and $y$.




A measure of efficacy of the predictor $phi$ is given by the proportion of variation in $y$ explained by $phi$, i.e., $$frac{operatorname{var}(hat y)}{operatorname{var}(y)}=r^2$$, which is termed as coefficient of determination.




Of course, the coefficient of determination is numerically equal to the square of the correlation coefficient, but that is hardly a definition or a motivation for the former.



When $r^2=0$ the linear prediction of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is worst, and when $r^2=1$ the prediction is perfect as $phi$ explains the variability in $y$ completely.



For more details, the following threads might be helpful:




  • Correlation Coefficient and Determination Coefficient


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/123651/geometric-interpretation-of-multiple-correlation-coefficient-r-and-coefficient?noredirect=1&lq=1


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/1447/coefficient-of-determination-r2-i-have-never-fully-grasped-the-interpretat?noredirect=1&lq=1.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Excellent answer
    $endgroup$
    – lux
    Jan 18 at 1:07














2












2








2





$begingroup$

Suppose you have $n$ paired observations $(x_i,y_i)$ on $(x,y)$ and you want to predict $y$ on the basis of $x$.



You consider the prediction model $$y=phi(x)+e$$ where $phi$ is the part of $y$ explained by $x$ through $phi$ and $e$ is the unexplained part.



Suppose you see from the scatter plot of $x$ and $y$ that $phi$ is more or less linear.



So you choose $$phi(x)=a+bx$$



Then the least square linear predictor of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is $$hat y=hat a+hat b x$$, where
$$hat a=bar y-hat bbar xquad,quad hat b=frac{operatorname{cov}(x,y)}{operatorname{var}(x)}$$



It can be shown that



begin{align}
operatorname{var}(hat y)&=operatorname{var}(hat a+hat b x)
\&=hat b^2operatorname{var}(x)
\&=r^2 operatorname{var}(y)
end{align}



, where $r$ is the correlation coefficient between $x$ and $y$.




A measure of efficacy of the predictor $phi$ is given by the proportion of variation in $y$ explained by $phi$, i.e., $$frac{operatorname{var}(hat y)}{operatorname{var}(y)}=r^2$$, which is termed as coefficient of determination.




Of course, the coefficient of determination is numerically equal to the square of the correlation coefficient, but that is hardly a definition or a motivation for the former.



When $r^2=0$ the linear prediction of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is worst, and when $r^2=1$ the prediction is perfect as $phi$ explains the variability in $y$ completely.



For more details, the following threads might be helpful:




  • Correlation Coefficient and Determination Coefficient


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/123651/geometric-interpretation-of-multiple-correlation-coefficient-r-and-coefficient?noredirect=1&lq=1


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/1447/coefficient-of-determination-r2-i-have-never-fully-grasped-the-interpretat?noredirect=1&lq=1.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Suppose you have $n$ paired observations $(x_i,y_i)$ on $(x,y)$ and you want to predict $y$ on the basis of $x$.



You consider the prediction model $$y=phi(x)+e$$ where $phi$ is the part of $y$ explained by $x$ through $phi$ and $e$ is the unexplained part.



Suppose you see from the scatter plot of $x$ and $y$ that $phi$ is more or less linear.



So you choose $$phi(x)=a+bx$$



Then the least square linear predictor of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is $$hat y=hat a+hat b x$$, where
$$hat a=bar y-hat bbar xquad,quad hat b=frac{operatorname{cov}(x,y)}{operatorname{var}(x)}$$



It can be shown that



begin{align}
operatorname{var}(hat y)&=operatorname{var}(hat a+hat b x)
\&=hat b^2operatorname{var}(x)
\&=r^2 operatorname{var}(y)
end{align}



, where $r$ is the correlation coefficient between $x$ and $y$.




A measure of efficacy of the predictor $phi$ is given by the proportion of variation in $y$ explained by $phi$, i.e., $$frac{operatorname{var}(hat y)}{operatorname{var}(y)}=r^2$$, which is termed as coefficient of determination.




Of course, the coefficient of determination is numerically equal to the square of the correlation coefficient, but that is hardly a definition or a motivation for the former.



When $r^2=0$ the linear prediction of $y$ obtained on the basis of $x$ is worst, and when $r^2=1$ the prediction is perfect as $phi$ explains the variability in $y$ completely.



For more details, the following threads might be helpful:




  • Correlation Coefficient and Determination Coefficient


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/123651/geometric-interpretation-of-multiple-correlation-coefficient-r-and-coefficient?noredirect=1&lq=1


  • https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/1447/coefficient-of-determination-r2-i-have-never-fully-grasped-the-interpretat?noredirect=1&lq=1.








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answered Jan 17 at 13:02









StubbornAtomStubbornAtom

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  • $begingroup$
    Excellent answer
    $endgroup$
    – lux
    Jan 18 at 1:07


















  • $begingroup$
    Excellent answer
    $endgroup$
    – lux
    Jan 18 at 1:07
















$begingroup$
Excellent answer
$endgroup$
– lux
Jan 18 at 1:07




$begingroup$
Excellent answer
$endgroup$
– lux
Jan 18 at 1:07


















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