Approximation a finite set with an operator












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It is known that if $X$ is a compact manifold, then for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $d(x_i, y_i)<delta$, there is a homeomorphim $h:Xto X$ such that $d(h(x), x)<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.



Question. Above property is hold on Banach spaces?
this means that



if $X$ is a Banach space, Can I say that for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $||x_i-y_i||<delta$, there is a operator $h:Xto X$ such that $||h(x)-x||<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You mean $epsilon |x|$ when in your Banach?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 17 at 10:59
















0












$begingroup$


It is known that if $X$ is a compact manifold, then for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $d(x_i, y_i)<delta$, there is a homeomorphim $h:Xto X$ such that $d(h(x), x)<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.



Question. Above property is hold on Banach spaces?
this means that



if $X$ is a Banach space, Can I say that for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $||x_i-y_i||<delta$, there is a operator $h:Xto X$ such that $||h(x)-x||<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You mean $epsilon |x|$ when in your Banach?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 17 at 10:59














0












0








0





$begingroup$


It is known that if $X$ is a compact manifold, then for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $d(x_i, y_i)<delta$, there is a homeomorphim $h:Xto X$ such that $d(h(x), x)<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.



Question. Above property is hold on Banach spaces?
this means that



if $X$ is a Banach space, Can I say that for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $||x_i-y_i||<delta$, there is a operator $h:Xto X$ such that $||h(x)-x||<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




It is known that if $X$ is a compact manifold, then for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $d(x_i, y_i)<delta$, there is a homeomorphim $h:Xto X$ such that $d(h(x), x)<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.



Question. Above property is hold on Banach spaces?
this means that



if $X$ is a Banach space, Can I say that for every $epsilon>0$, there is $delta>0$ such that for every finite sequence ${(x_i, y_i)}_{i=0}^nsubset X$ with $x_ineq y_i$ and $||x_i-y_i||<delta$, there is a operator $h:Xto X$ such that $||h(x)-x||<epsilon$ for all $xin X$ and $h(x_i)=y_i$ for all $0leq ileq n$.







operator-theory dynamical-systems






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asked Jan 17 at 10:53









user479859user479859

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806












  • $begingroup$
    You mean $epsilon |x|$ when in your Banach?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 17 at 10:59


















  • $begingroup$
    You mean $epsilon |x|$ when in your Banach?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 17 at 10:59
















$begingroup$
You mean $epsilon |x|$ when in your Banach?
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 17 at 10:59




$begingroup$
You mean $epsilon |x|$ when in your Banach?
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 17 at 10:59










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Surely not, if you mean bounded linear map when you say operator. First note that (as commented by Mindlack) $|h(x)-x|<epsilon$ for all $x$ means $h$ is the identity so you should replace it with $|h(x)-x|leq epsilon |x|$ for all $x$. Even then the result is false. Consider $mathbb R$ as a one-dimensional Banach space. In this case $h(x)=cx$ for some real number $c$. If $|x_i-y_i|<delta$ you want $cx_i=y_i$ for all $i$ which can hold only when $frac {y_i} {x_i}$ is same for all $i$.






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    $begingroup$

    Surely not, if you mean bounded linear map when you say operator. First note that (as commented by Mindlack) $|h(x)-x|<epsilon$ for all $x$ means $h$ is the identity so you should replace it with $|h(x)-x|leq epsilon |x|$ for all $x$. Even then the result is false. Consider $mathbb R$ as a one-dimensional Banach space. In this case $h(x)=cx$ for some real number $c$. If $|x_i-y_i|<delta$ you want $cx_i=y_i$ for all $i$ which can hold only when $frac {y_i} {x_i}$ is same for all $i$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Surely not, if you mean bounded linear map when you say operator. First note that (as commented by Mindlack) $|h(x)-x|<epsilon$ for all $x$ means $h$ is the identity so you should replace it with $|h(x)-x|leq epsilon |x|$ for all $x$. Even then the result is false. Consider $mathbb R$ as a one-dimensional Banach space. In this case $h(x)=cx$ for some real number $c$. If $|x_i-y_i|<delta$ you want $cx_i=y_i$ for all $i$ which can hold only when $frac {y_i} {x_i}$ is same for all $i$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Surely not, if you mean bounded linear map when you say operator. First note that (as commented by Mindlack) $|h(x)-x|<epsilon$ for all $x$ means $h$ is the identity so you should replace it with $|h(x)-x|leq epsilon |x|$ for all $x$. Even then the result is false. Consider $mathbb R$ as a one-dimensional Banach space. In this case $h(x)=cx$ for some real number $c$. If $|x_i-y_i|<delta$ you want $cx_i=y_i$ for all $i$ which can hold only when $frac {y_i} {x_i}$ is same for all $i$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Surely not, if you mean bounded linear map when you say operator. First note that (as commented by Mindlack) $|h(x)-x|<epsilon$ for all $x$ means $h$ is the identity so you should replace it with $|h(x)-x|leq epsilon |x|$ for all $x$. Even then the result is false. Consider $mathbb R$ as a one-dimensional Banach space. In this case $h(x)=cx$ for some real number $c$. If $|x_i-y_i|<delta$ you want $cx_i=y_i$ for all $i$ which can hold only when $frac {y_i} {x_i}$ is same for all $i$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 17 at 12:30

























        answered Jan 17 at 12:03









        Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

        59.2k42161




        59.2k42161






























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