two variables quadratic inequalities solution
$begingroup$
Suppose there are $n$ quadratic inequalities, the form is $A_i x^2 + B_i y^2 + C_i xy + D_i x + E_i y + F_i leq 0$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where $x,y$ are two variables and $(A_i, B_i, C_i, D_i, E_i, F_i)$ are constant numbers, and all the range is $[-infty,+infty]$. So is there a simple way to find the solutions of these quadratic inequalities?
inequality quadratics hyperbolic-functions functional-inequalities
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|
show 7 more comments
$begingroup$
Suppose there are $n$ quadratic inequalities, the form is $A_i x^2 + B_i y^2 + C_i xy + D_i x + E_i y + F_i leq 0$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where $x,y$ are two variables and $(A_i, B_i, C_i, D_i, E_i, F_i)$ are constant numbers, and all the range is $[-infty,+infty]$. So is there a simple way to find the solutions of these quadratic inequalities?
inequality quadratics hyperbolic-functions functional-inequalities
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The set of solutions will very exceptionally be a finite set of solutions, Either it will be a whole area or the empty set. For example $x^2+y^2-1<0$ and $(x-1)^2+y^2-1<0$ (intersection area of two unit-radii disks centered in $(0,0)$ and (1,0)$ resp.) is a lens-shaped area.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:06
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response. Actually, the inequalities satisfy a hyperbola kind of curves, such like $frac{(x-p)^2}{a^2} - frac{(y-q)^2}{b^2} = 1$, but the foci of the hyperbolas may not exactly on the axis. In this situation, does it still same that there is a finite set of solutions, and how to judge whether the inequalities have a solution or not?
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:14
$begingroup$
You have written "=1" ; You surely meant $<1". You have to draw the curves to have an idea of the solutions, but my answer will be the same for a family of hyperbolic constraints: unless it is an exceptional case, the solution is likely to be either a whole area of the plane or the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:21
$begingroup$
Yes, you are right, they are $leq 1$. The problem is that $n$ will be very large, so it seems not possible to draw all the curves and find the overlap area. I have no idea how to reduce the computation or can I judge the answer only by the coefficient matrix, that kind of thing. Can you give me a hint or clue where to find the solution of this problem? I really appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:27
$begingroup$
You should give an idea of how the $p$s and $q$s are defined. Do you agree that the solution set will be an intersection of sets. An intersection of a very large number of sets can generate almost any set...
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:31
|
show 7 more comments
$begingroup$
Suppose there are $n$ quadratic inequalities, the form is $A_i x^2 + B_i y^2 + C_i xy + D_i x + E_i y + F_i leq 0$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where $x,y$ are two variables and $(A_i, B_i, C_i, D_i, E_i, F_i)$ are constant numbers, and all the range is $[-infty,+infty]$. So is there a simple way to find the solutions of these quadratic inequalities?
inequality quadratics hyperbolic-functions functional-inequalities
$endgroup$
Suppose there are $n$ quadratic inequalities, the form is $A_i x^2 + B_i y^2 + C_i xy + D_i x + E_i y + F_i leq 0$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where $x,y$ are two variables and $(A_i, B_i, C_i, D_i, E_i, F_i)$ are constant numbers, and all the range is $[-infty,+infty]$. So is there a simple way to find the solutions of these quadratic inequalities?
inequality quadratics hyperbolic-functions functional-inequalities
inequality quadratics hyperbolic-functions functional-inequalities
edited Dec 15 '16 at 21:48
WYC
asked Dec 15 '16 at 21:39
WYCWYC
174
174
$begingroup$
The set of solutions will very exceptionally be a finite set of solutions, Either it will be a whole area or the empty set. For example $x^2+y^2-1<0$ and $(x-1)^2+y^2-1<0$ (intersection area of two unit-radii disks centered in $(0,0)$ and (1,0)$ resp.) is a lens-shaped area.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:06
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response. Actually, the inequalities satisfy a hyperbola kind of curves, such like $frac{(x-p)^2}{a^2} - frac{(y-q)^2}{b^2} = 1$, but the foci of the hyperbolas may not exactly on the axis. In this situation, does it still same that there is a finite set of solutions, and how to judge whether the inequalities have a solution or not?
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:14
$begingroup$
You have written "=1" ; You surely meant $<1". You have to draw the curves to have an idea of the solutions, but my answer will be the same for a family of hyperbolic constraints: unless it is an exceptional case, the solution is likely to be either a whole area of the plane or the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:21
$begingroup$
Yes, you are right, they are $leq 1$. The problem is that $n$ will be very large, so it seems not possible to draw all the curves and find the overlap area. I have no idea how to reduce the computation or can I judge the answer only by the coefficient matrix, that kind of thing. Can you give me a hint or clue where to find the solution of this problem? I really appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:27
$begingroup$
You should give an idea of how the $p$s and $q$s are defined. Do you agree that the solution set will be an intersection of sets. An intersection of a very large number of sets can generate almost any set...
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:31
|
show 7 more comments
$begingroup$
The set of solutions will very exceptionally be a finite set of solutions, Either it will be a whole area or the empty set. For example $x^2+y^2-1<0$ and $(x-1)^2+y^2-1<0$ (intersection area of two unit-radii disks centered in $(0,0)$ and (1,0)$ resp.) is a lens-shaped area.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:06
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response. Actually, the inequalities satisfy a hyperbola kind of curves, such like $frac{(x-p)^2}{a^2} - frac{(y-q)^2}{b^2} = 1$, but the foci of the hyperbolas may not exactly on the axis. In this situation, does it still same that there is a finite set of solutions, and how to judge whether the inequalities have a solution or not?
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:14
$begingroup$
You have written "=1" ; You surely meant $<1". You have to draw the curves to have an idea of the solutions, but my answer will be the same for a family of hyperbolic constraints: unless it is an exceptional case, the solution is likely to be either a whole area of the plane or the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:21
$begingroup$
Yes, you are right, they are $leq 1$. The problem is that $n$ will be very large, so it seems not possible to draw all the curves and find the overlap area. I have no idea how to reduce the computation or can I judge the answer only by the coefficient matrix, that kind of thing. Can you give me a hint or clue where to find the solution of this problem? I really appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:27
$begingroup$
You should give an idea of how the $p$s and $q$s are defined. Do you agree that the solution set will be an intersection of sets. An intersection of a very large number of sets can generate almost any set...
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:31
$begingroup$
The set of solutions will very exceptionally be a finite set of solutions, Either it will be a whole area or the empty set. For example $x^2+y^2-1<0$ and $(x-1)^2+y^2-1<0$ (intersection area of two unit-radii disks centered in $(0,0)$ and (1,0)$ resp.) is a lens-shaped area.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:06
$begingroup$
The set of solutions will very exceptionally be a finite set of solutions, Either it will be a whole area or the empty set. For example $x^2+y^2-1<0$ and $(x-1)^2+y^2-1<0$ (intersection area of two unit-radii disks centered in $(0,0)$ and (1,0)$ resp.) is a lens-shaped area.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:06
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response. Actually, the inequalities satisfy a hyperbola kind of curves, such like $frac{(x-p)^2}{a^2} - frac{(y-q)^2}{b^2} = 1$, but the foci of the hyperbolas may not exactly on the axis. In this situation, does it still same that there is a finite set of solutions, and how to judge whether the inequalities have a solution or not?
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:14
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response. Actually, the inequalities satisfy a hyperbola kind of curves, such like $frac{(x-p)^2}{a^2} - frac{(y-q)^2}{b^2} = 1$, but the foci of the hyperbolas may not exactly on the axis. In this situation, does it still same that there is a finite set of solutions, and how to judge whether the inequalities have a solution or not?
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:14
$begingroup$
You have written "=1" ; You surely meant $<1". You have to draw the curves to have an idea of the solutions, but my answer will be the same for a family of hyperbolic constraints: unless it is an exceptional case, the solution is likely to be either a whole area of the plane or the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:21
$begingroup$
You have written "=1" ; You surely meant $<1". You have to draw the curves to have an idea of the solutions, but my answer will be the same for a family of hyperbolic constraints: unless it is an exceptional case, the solution is likely to be either a whole area of the plane or the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:21
$begingroup$
Yes, you are right, they are $leq 1$. The problem is that $n$ will be very large, so it seems not possible to draw all the curves and find the overlap area. I have no idea how to reduce the computation or can I judge the answer only by the coefficient matrix, that kind of thing. Can you give me a hint or clue where to find the solution of this problem? I really appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:27
$begingroup$
Yes, you are right, they are $leq 1$. The problem is that $n$ will be very large, so it seems not possible to draw all the curves and find the overlap area. I have no idea how to reduce the computation or can I judge the answer only by the coefficient matrix, that kind of thing. Can you give me a hint or clue where to find the solution of this problem? I really appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:27
$begingroup$
You should give an idea of how the $p$s and $q$s are defined. Do you agree that the solution set will be an intersection of sets. An intersection of a very large number of sets can generate almost any set...
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:31
$begingroup$
You should give an idea of how the $p$s and $q$s are defined. Do you agree that the solution set will be an intersection of sets. An intersection of a very large number of sets can generate almost any set...
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:31
|
show 7 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Have a look at the picture below (done using Geogebra with the "invert into a circle" tool). You see a branch of a hyperbola having $O(0,0)$ as one of its foci. Points $C,D,...Z$ are taken on it. The inverse of these points on this hyperbolic branch are points $C',D',... Z'$. How are these points obtained ? By the following transformation rule ; let us call $M$ the generic point on the hyperbola; the rule(s) for obtaining its image $M'$ by the given inversion is :
$R_1$ : $M'$ is aligned with $O$ and $M.$
$R_2$ : The product of distances $OM.OM'=1$.
These two rules can be summarized into a single one :
$tag{1}vec{OM'}=frac{vec{OM}}{|vec{OM} |^2}$
A kind of miracle occurs : points $M'$ are all situated on an arc of ellipse, called the inverse of the hyperbolic arc. Of course, this is not a "miracle", it can be proved in a rather simple way. See remark below.
Morevover, the inverse of the other hyperbolic branch is "inverted" into the remaining arc $C'Z'$ of the ellipse.
Besides, interior points of the hyperbola are "mapped onto" interior points of the corresponding ellipse.
Thus your problem is reduced to the intersection of interior of ellipses which is simpler because it is bounded objects. If your application can be "pixel-based", it should be not too much time consuming to test whether there are still pixels into the increasingly shrinking region...
Remark: the ellipse can be given an analytical expression knowing the analytical expression of the hyperbola. Here is how. Using rules $R_1$ and $R_2$ above, if the image of $M(x,y)$ is $M'(X,Y)$, the reverse is true ( $M'(X,Y)$ has $M(x,y)$ for its image) with (refer to $(1)$ above):
$$tag{2}(a) cases{X=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}\Y=frac{y}{x^2+y^2}} iff (b) cases{x=frac{X}{X^2+Y^2}\y=frac{Y}{X^2+Y^2}}$$
It suffices then to plug formulas $(2)(b)$ into the equation of the hyperbola in order to get the equation of a conic section, which should always be an ellipse in this case (it has to be checked, but I will stop here because it is 1:30 CET in the night).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you. Although I have not understand the relationship between original inequality and the inverted equation, you give me an inspiration for my problem. I will state my thought as the second answer, and I hope you can help me to check whether it is correct.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 16 '16 at 17:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Now that the question is actually to find a solution area for inequalities $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where we can set $p^*$ as the origin, and $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ are points in 2-dimensional plane, and $|cdot|$ is the Elucidean distance of two points. Actually we already know that there is a solution (sorry about that I overlook this important information in the above question), but the solution point is not know. Thus for each inequality, $C_i geq -|p^*p_i|$ holds. The reason is that if there is one $C_i < -|p^*p_i|$, we cannot find a point satisfy the inequality (due to the triangle inequality the difference of any two edges is larger than or equal to the third edge). The goal is to find whether there is only one solution or a set of solutions.
From the above discussion, we have that $C_i geq -|p^* p_i|, (forall i in [i,n])$. We classify this condition in 3 situations: $[-|p^*p_i|,0)$, $[0,|p^*p_i|]$, and $(|p^*p_i|,+infty)$. We first show when $C_i in (|p^*p_i|,+infty)$, the inequality $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$ will always satisfied (also due to triangle inequality). Then we can discuss the other two situations. When $C_i in [0,|p^*p_i|]$, we can transform the inequality to the property of hyperbola, where we set the length of foci $frac{|p^*p_i|}{2}$, where $p^*,p_i$ are two foci points, and the other parameter (denote $a$ in most cases) of as $frac{C_i}{2}$. Then the solution area will be the side oriented to $p^*$ of the curve (there are 2 curves of hyperbola) that far from $p^*$ (this can be easily see by drawing a hyperbola). Similarly, when $C_i in [-|p^*p_i|,0)$, the solution area will also be the side oriented to $p^*$, but the curve close to $p^*$.
(The below part is my intuition...) Since the solution area of each inequality is a continuous area, so the final solution area will also be one continuous area (either closed or open). And we can know that if $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ distributed all over the plane in every direction (it's like to rotate a hyperbola in 360 degree with different shapes), the final solution area will be a colsed area enclosing $p^*$. In the extremely case, when all the $C_i = -|p^*p_i|$, the answer is exactly $p^*$. So if the already known solution is not $p^*$ (say $s^*$), then the solution set will be an continuous area that covered the $s^*$ and $p^*$. (Now I am not sure whether it is right and how to formalized proved this... I will appreciate it if you can help me to formalize this or give some suggestions that I should be carefully aware of. Thanks.)
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Have a look at the picture below (done using Geogebra with the "invert into a circle" tool). You see a branch of a hyperbola having $O(0,0)$ as one of its foci. Points $C,D,...Z$ are taken on it. The inverse of these points on this hyperbolic branch are points $C',D',... Z'$. How are these points obtained ? By the following transformation rule ; let us call $M$ the generic point on the hyperbola; the rule(s) for obtaining its image $M'$ by the given inversion is :
$R_1$ : $M'$ is aligned with $O$ and $M.$
$R_2$ : The product of distances $OM.OM'=1$.
These two rules can be summarized into a single one :
$tag{1}vec{OM'}=frac{vec{OM}}{|vec{OM} |^2}$
A kind of miracle occurs : points $M'$ are all situated on an arc of ellipse, called the inverse of the hyperbolic arc. Of course, this is not a "miracle", it can be proved in a rather simple way. See remark below.
Morevover, the inverse of the other hyperbolic branch is "inverted" into the remaining arc $C'Z'$ of the ellipse.
Besides, interior points of the hyperbola are "mapped onto" interior points of the corresponding ellipse.
Thus your problem is reduced to the intersection of interior of ellipses which is simpler because it is bounded objects. If your application can be "pixel-based", it should be not too much time consuming to test whether there are still pixels into the increasingly shrinking region...
Remark: the ellipse can be given an analytical expression knowing the analytical expression of the hyperbola. Here is how. Using rules $R_1$ and $R_2$ above, if the image of $M(x,y)$ is $M'(X,Y)$, the reverse is true ( $M'(X,Y)$ has $M(x,y)$ for its image) with (refer to $(1)$ above):
$$tag{2}(a) cases{X=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}\Y=frac{y}{x^2+y^2}} iff (b) cases{x=frac{X}{X^2+Y^2}\y=frac{Y}{X^2+Y^2}}$$
It suffices then to plug formulas $(2)(b)$ into the equation of the hyperbola in order to get the equation of a conic section, which should always be an ellipse in this case (it has to be checked, but I will stop here because it is 1:30 CET in the night).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you. Although I have not understand the relationship between original inequality and the inverted equation, you give me an inspiration for my problem. I will state my thought as the second answer, and I hope you can help me to check whether it is correct.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 16 '16 at 17:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Have a look at the picture below (done using Geogebra with the "invert into a circle" tool). You see a branch of a hyperbola having $O(0,0)$ as one of its foci. Points $C,D,...Z$ are taken on it. The inverse of these points on this hyperbolic branch are points $C',D',... Z'$. How are these points obtained ? By the following transformation rule ; let us call $M$ the generic point on the hyperbola; the rule(s) for obtaining its image $M'$ by the given inversion is :
$R_1$ : $M'$ is aligned with $O$ and $M.$
$R_2$ : The product of distances $OM.OM'=1$.
These two rules can be summarized into a single one :
$tag{1}vec{OM'}=frac{vec{OM}}{|vec{OM} |^2}$
A kind of miracle occurs : points $M'$ are all situated on an arc of ellipse, called the inverse of the hyperbolic arc. Of course, this is not a "miracle", it can be proved in a rather simple way. See remark below.
Morevover, the inverse of the other hyperbolic branch is "inverted" into the remaining arc $C'Z'$ of the ellipse.
Besides, interior points of the hyperbola are "mapped onto" interior points of the corresponding ellipse.
Thus your problem is reduced to the intersection of interior of ellipses which is simpler because it is bounded objects. If your application can be "pixel-based", it should be not too much time consuming to test whether there are still pixels into the increasingly shrinking region...
Remark: the ellipse can be given an analytical expression knowing the analytical expression of the hyperbola. Here is how. Using rules $R_1$ and $R_2$ above, if the image of $M(x,y)$ is $M'(X,Y)$, the reverse is true ( $M'(X,Y)$ has $M(x,y)$ for its image) with (refer to $(1)$ above):
$$tag{2}(a) cases{X=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}\Y=frac{y}{x^2+y^2}} iff (b) cases{x=frac{X}{X^2+Y^2}\y=frac{Y}{X^2+Y^2}}$$
It suffices then to plug formulas $(2)(b)$ into the equation of the hyperbola in order to get the equation of a conic section, which should always be an ellipse in this case (it has to be checked, but I will stop here because it is 1:30 CET in the night).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you. Although I have not understand the relationship between original inequality and the inverted equation, you give me an inspiration for my problem. I will state my thought as the second answer, and I hope you can help me to check whether it is correct.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 16 '16 at 17:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Have a look at the picture below (done using Geogebra with the "invert into a circle" tool). You see a branch of a hyperbola having $O(0,0)$ as one of its foci. Points $C,D,...Z$ are taken on it. The inverse of these points on this hyperbolic branch are points $C',D',... Z'$. How are these points obtained ? By the following transformation rule ; let us call $M$ the generic point on the hyperbola; the rule(s) for obtaining its image $M'$ by the given inversion is :
$R_1$ : $M'$ is aligned with $O$ and $M.$
$R_2$ : The product of distances $OM.OM'=1$.
These two rules can be summarized into a single one :
$tag{1}vec{OM'}=frac{vec{OM}}{|vec{OM} |^2}$
A kind of miracle occurs : points $M'$ are all situated on an arc of ellipse, called the inverse of the hyperbolic arc. Of course, this is not a "miracle", it can be proved in a rather simple way. See remark below.
Morevover, the inverse of the other hyperbolic branch is "inverted" into the remaining arc $C'Z'$ of the ellipse.
Besides, interior points of the hyperbola are "mapped onto" interior points of the corresponding ellipse.
Thus your problem is reduced to the intersection of interior of ellipses which is simpler because it is bounded objects. If your application can be "pixel-based", it should be not too much time consuming to test whether there are still pixels into the increasingly shrinking region...
Remark: the ellipse can be given an analytical expression knowing the analytical expression of the hyperbola. Here is how. Using rules $R_1$ and $R_2$ above, if the image of $M(x,y)$ is $M'(X,Y)$, the reverse is true ( $M'(X,Y)$ has $M(x,y)$ for its image) with (refer to $(1)$ above):
$$tag{2}(a) cases{X=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}\Y=frac{y}{x^2+y^2}} iff (b) cases{x=frac{X}{X^2+Y^2}\y=frac{Y}{X^2+Y^2}}$$
It suffices then to plug formulas $(2)(b)$ into the equation of the hyperbola in order to get the equation of a conic section, which should always be an ellipse in this case (it has to be checked, but I will stop here because it is 1:30 CET in the night).
$endgroup$
Have a look at the picture below (done using Geogebra with the "invert into a circle" tool). You see a branch of a hyperbola having $O(0,0)$ as one of its foci. Points $C,D,...Z$ are taken on it. The inverse of these points on this hyperbolic branch are points $C',D',... Z'$. How are these points obtained ? By the following transformation rule ; let us call $M$ the generic point on the hyperbola; the rule(s) for obtaining its image $M'$ by the given inversion is :
$R_1$ : $M'$ is aligned with $O$ and $M.$
$R_2$ : The product of distances $OM.OM'=1$.
These two rules can be summarized into a single one :
$tag{1}vec{OM'}=frac{vec{OM}}{|vec{OM} |^2}$
A kind of miracle occurs : points $M'$ are all situated on an arc of ellipse, called the inverse of the hyperbolic arc. Of course, this is not a "miracle", it can be proved in a rather simple way. See remark below.
Morevover, the inverse of the other hyperbolic branch is "inverted" into the remaining arc $C'Z'$ of the ellipse.
Besides, interior points of the hyperbola are "mapped onto" interior points of the corresponding ellipse.
Thus your problem is reduced to the intersection of interior of ellipses which is simpler because it is bounded objects. If your application can be "pixel-based", it should be not too much time consuming to test whether there are still pixels into the increasingly shrinking region...
Remark: the ellipse can be given an analytical expression knowing the analytical expression of the hyperbola. Here is how. Using rules $R_1$ and $R_2$ above, if the image of $M(x,y)$ is $M'(X,Y)$, the reverse is true ( $M'(X,Y)$ has $M(x,y)$ for its image) with (refer to $(1)$ above):
$$tag{2}(a) cases{X=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}\Y=frac{y}{x^2+y^2}} iff (b) cases{x=frac{X}{X^2+Y^2}\y=frac{Y}{X^2+Y^2}}$$
It suffices then to plug formulas $(2)(b)$ into the equation of the hyperbola in order to get the equation of a conic section, which should always be an ellipse in this case (it has to be checked, but I will stop here because it is 1:30 CET in the night).
edited Dec 16 '16 at 0:33
answered Dec 16 '16 at 0:16
Jean MarieJean Marie
30.6k42154
30.6k42154
$begingroup$
Thank you. Although I have not understand the relationship between original inequality and the inverted equation, you give me an inspiration for my problem. I will state my thought as the second answer, and I hope you can help me to check whether it is correct.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 16 '16 at 17:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you. Although I have not understand the relationship between original inequality and the inverted equation, you give me an inspiration for my problem. I will state my thought as the second answer, and I hope you can help me to check whether it is correct.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 16 '16 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Thank you. Although I have not understand the relationship between original inequality and the inverted equation, you give me an inspiration for my problem. I will state my thought as the second answer, and I hope you can help me to check whether it is correct.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 16 '16 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Thank you. Although I have not understand the relationship between original inequality and the inverted equation, you give me an inspiration for my problem. I will state my thought as the second answer, and I hope you can help me to check whether it is correct.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 16 '16 at 17:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Now that the question is actually to find a solution area for inequalities $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where we can set $p^*$ as the origin, and $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ are points in 2-dimensional plane, and $|cdot|$ is the Elucidean distance of two points. Actually we already know that there is a solution (sorry about that I overlook this important information in the above question), but the solution point is not know. Thus for each inequality, $C_i geq -|p^*p_i|$ holds. The reason is that if there is one $C_i < -|p^*p_i|$, we cannot find a point satisfy the inequality (due to the triangle inequality the difference of any two edges is larger than or equal to the third edge). The goal is to find whether there is only one solution or a set of solutions.
From the above discussion, we have that $C_i geq -|p^* p_i|, (forall i in [i,n])$. We classify this condition in 3 situations: $[-|p^*p_i|,0)$, $[0,|p^*p_i|]$, and $(|p^*p_i|,+infty)$. We first show when $C_i in (|p^*p_i|,+infty)$, the inequality $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$ will always satisfied (also due to triangle inequality). Then we can discuss the other two situations. When $C_i in [0,|p^*p_i|]$, we can transform the inequality to the property of hyperbola, where we set the length of foci $frac{|p^*p_i|}{2}$, where $p^*,p_i$ are two foci points, and the other parameter (denote $a$ in most cases) of as $frac{C_i}{2}$. Then the solution area will be the side oriented to $p^*$ of the curve (there are 2 curves of hyperbola) that far from $p^*$ (this can be easily see by drawing a hyperbola). Similarly, when $C_i in [-|p^*p_i|,0)$, the solution area will also be the side oriented to $p^*$, but the curve close to $p^*$.
(The below part is my intuition...) Since the solution area of each inequality is a continuous area, so the final solution area will also be one continuous area (either closed or open). And we can know that if $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ distributed all over the plane in every direction (it's like to rotate a hyperbola in 360 degree with different shapes), the final solution area will be a colsed area enclosing $p^*$. In the extremely case, when all the $C_i = -|p^*p_i|$, the answer is exactly $p^*$. So if the already known solution is not $p^*$ (say $s^*$), then the solution set will be an continuous area that covered the $s^*$ and $p^*$. (Now I am not sure whether it is right and how to formalized proved this... I will appreciate it if you can help me to formalize this or give some suggestions that I should be carefully aware of. Thanks.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Now that the question is actually to find a solution area for inequalities $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where we can set $p^*$ as the origin, and $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ are points in 2-dimensional plane, and $|cdot|$ is the Elucidean distance of two points. Actually we already know that there is a solution (sorry about that I overlook this important information in the above question), but the solution point is not know. Thus for each inequality, $C_i geq -|p^*p_i|$ holds. The reason is that if there is one $C_i < -|p^*p_i|$, we cannot find a point satisfy the inequality (due to the triangle inequality the difference of any two edges is larger than or equal to the third edge). The goal is to find whether there is only one solution or a set of solutions.
From the above discussion, we have that $C_i geq -|p^* p_i|, (forall i in [i,n])$. We classify this condition in 3 situations: $[-|p^*p_i|,0)$, $[0,|p^*p_i|]$, and $(|p^*p_i|,+infty)$. We first show when $C_i in (|p^*p_i|,+infty)$, the inequality $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$ will always satisfied (also due to triangle inequality). Then we can discuss the other two situations. When $C_i in [0,|p^*p_i|]$, we can transform the inequality to the property of hyperbola, where we set the length of foci $frac{|p^*p_i|}{2}$, where $p^*,p_i$ are two foci points, and the other parameter (denote $a$ in most cases) of as $frac{C_i}{2}$. Then the solution area will be the side oriented to $p^*$ of the curve (there are 2 curves of hyperbola) that far from $p^*$ (this can be easily see by drawing a hyperbola). Similarly, when $C_i in [-|p^*p_i|,0)$, the solution area will also be the side oriented to $p^*$, but the curve close to $p^*$.
(The below part is my intuition...) Since the solution area of each inequality is a continuous area, so the final solution area will also be one continuous area (either closed or open). And we can know that if $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ distributed all over the plane in every direction (it's like to rotate a hyperbola in 360 degree with different shapes), the final solution area will be a colsed area enclosing $p^*$. In the extremely case, when all the $C_i = -|p^*p_i|$, the answer is exactly $p^*$. So if the already known solution is not $p^*$ (say $s^*$), then the solution set will be an continuous area that covered the $s^*$ and $p^*$. (Now I am not sure whether it is right and how to formalized proved this... I will appreciate it if you can help me to formalize this or give some suggestions that I should be carefully aware of. Thanks.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Now that the question is actually to find a solution area for inequalities $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where we can set $p^*$ as the origin, and $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ are points in 2-dimensional plane, and $|cdot|$ is the Elucidean distance of two points. Actually we already know that there is a solution (sorry about that I overlook this important information in the above question), but the solution point is not know. Thus for each inequality, $C_i geq -|p^*p_i|$ holds. The reason is that if there is one $C_i < -|p^*p_i|$, we cannot find a point satisfy the inequality (due to the triangle inequality the difference of any two edges is larger than or equal to the third edge). The goal is to find whether there is only one solution or a set of solutions.
From the above discussion, we have that $C_i geq -|p^* p_i|, (forall i in [i,n])$. We classify this condition in 3 situations: $[-|p^*p_i|,0)$, $[0,|p^*p_i|]$, and $(|p^*p_i|,+infty)$. We first show when $C_i in (|p^*p_i|,+infty)$, the inequality $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$ will always satisfied (also due to triangle inequality). Then we can discuss the other two situations. When $C_i in [0,|p^*p_i|]$, we can transform the inequality to the property of hyperbola, where we set the length of foci $frac{|p^*p_i|}{2}$, where $p^*,p_i$ are two foci points, and the other parameter (denote $a$ in most cases) of as $frac{C_i}{2}$. Then the solution area will be the side oriented to $p^*$ of the curve (there are 2 curves of hyperbola) that far from $p^*$ (this can be easily see by drawing a hyperbola). Similarly, when $C_i in [-|p^*p_i|,0)$, the solution area will also be the side oriented to $p^*$, but the curve close to $p^*$.
(The below part is my intuition...) Since the solution area of each inequality is a continuous area, so the final solution area will also be one continuous area (either closed or open). And we can know that if $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ distributed all over the plane in every direction (it's like to rotate a hyperbola in 360 degree with different shapes), the final solution area will be a colsed area enclosing $p^*$. In the extremely case, when all the $C_i = -|p^*p_i|$, the answer is exactly $p^*$. So if the already known solution is not $p^*$ (say $s^*$), then the solution set will be an continuous area that covered the $s^*$ and $p^*$. (Now I am not sure whether it is right and how to formalized proved this... I will appreciate it if you can help me to formalize this or give some suggestions that I should be carefully aware of. Thanks.)
$endgroup$
Now that the question is actually to find a solution area for inequalities $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$, $(forall i in [1,n])$, where we can set $p^*$ as the origin, and $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ are points in 2-dimensional plane, and $|cdot|$ is the Elucidean distance of two points. Actually we already know that there is a solution (sorry about that I overlook this important information in the above question), but the solution point is not know. Thus for each inequality, $C_i geq -|p^*p_i|$ holds. The reason is that if there is one $C_i < -|p^*p_i|$, we cannot find a point satisfy the inequality (due to the triangle inequality the difference of any two edges is larger than or equal to the third edge). The goal is to find whether there is only one solution or a set of solutions.
From the above discussion, we have that $C_i geq -|p^* p_i|, (forall i in [i,n])$. We classify this condition in 3 situations: $[-|p^*p_i|,0)$, $[0,|p^*p_i|]$, and $(|p^*p_i|,+infty)$. We first show when $C_i in (|p^*p_i|,+infty)$, the inequality $|xp^*|-|xp_i| leq C_i$ will always satisfied (also due to triangle inequality). Then we can discuss the other two situations. When $C_i in [0,|p^*p_i|]$, we can transform the inequality to the property of hyperbola, where we set the length of foci $frac{|p^*p_i|}{2}$, where $p^*,p_i$ are two foci points, and the other parameter (denote $a$ in most cases) of as $frac{C_i}{2}$. Then the solution area will be the side oriented to $p^*$ of the curve (there are 2 curves of hyperbola) that far from $p^*$ (this can be easily see by drawing a hyperbola). Similarly, when $C_i in [-|p^*p_i|,0)$, the solution area will also be the side oriented to $p^*$, but the curve close to $p^*$.
(The below part is my intuition...) Since the solution area of each inequality is a continuous area, so the final solution area will also be one continuous area (either closed or open). And we can know that if $p_i (forall i in [1,n])$ distributed all over the plane in every direction (it's like to rotate a hyperbola in 360 degree with different shapes), the final solution area will be a colsed area enclosing $p^*$. In the extremely case, when all the $C_i = -|p^*p_i|$, the answer is exactly $p^*$. So if the already known solution is not $p^*$ (say $s^*$), then the solution set will be an continuous area that covered the $s^*$ and $p^*$. (Now I am not sure whether it is right and how to formalized proved this... I will appreciate it if you can help me to formalize this or give some suggestions that I should be carefully aware of. Thanks.)
answered Dec 16 '16 at 18:48
WYCWYC
174
174
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The set of solutions will very exceptionally be a finite set of solutions, Either it will be a whole area or the empty set. For example $x^2+y^2-1<0$ and $(x-1)^2+y^2-1<0$ (intersection area of two unit-radii disks centered in $(0,0)$ and (1,0)$ resp.) is a lens-shaped area.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:06
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response. Actually, the inequalities satisfy a hyperbola kind of curves, such like $frac{(x-p)^2}{a^2} - frac{(y-q)^2}{b^2} = 1$, but the foci of the hyperbolas may not exactly on the axis. In this situation, does it still same that there is a finite set of solutions, and how to judge whether the inequalities have a solution or not?
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:14
$begingroup$
You have written "=1" ; You surely meant $<1". You have to draw the curves to have an idea of the solutions, but my answer will be the same for a family of hyperbolic constraints: unless it is an exceptional case, the solution is likely to be either a whole area of the plane or the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:21
$begingroup$
Yes, you are right, they are $leq 1$. The problem is that $n$ will be very large, so it seems not possible to draw all the curves and find the overlap area. I have no idea how to reduce the computation or can I judge the answer only by the coefficient matrix, that kind of thing. Can you give me a hint or clue where to find the solution of this problem? I really appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– WYC
Dec 15 '16 at 22:27
$begingroup$
You should give an idea of how the $p$s and $q$s are defined. Do you agree that the solution set will be an intersection of sets. An intersection of a very large number of sets can generate almost any set...
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 15 '16 at 22:31