Infinite norm of a vector












2












$begingroup$


While reading the book Numerical Linear Algebra by Trefethen and Bau, I came across the following example.



enter image description here



The authors indicate that $|J|_{infty} = 2$,
however if I recall the definition of $|cdot|_{infty}$ correctly, $|[1, -1]|_{infty} = max(|1|, |{-1}|)$,
which is obviously $1$.
Is this just a typo (the argument still holds if $|J|_{infty} = 1$) or am I misinterpreting something?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    While reading the book Numerical Linear Algebra by Trefethen and Bau, I came across the following example.



    enter image description here



    The authors indicate that $|J|_{infty} = 2$,
    however if I recall the definition of $|cdot|_{infty}$ correctly, $|[1, -1]|_{infty} = max(|1|, |{-1}|)$,
    which is obviously $1$.
    Is this just a typo (the argument still holds if $|J|_{infty} = 1$) or am I misinterpreting something?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      While reading the book Numerical Linear Algebra by Trefethen and Bau, I came across the following example.



      enter image description here



      The authors indicate that $|J|_{infty} = 2$,
      however if I recall the definition of $|cdot|_{infty}$ correctly, $|[1, -1]|_{infty} = max(|1|, |{-1}|)$,
      which is obviously $1$.
      Is this just a typo (the argument still holds if $|J|_{infty} = 1$) or am I misinterpreting something?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      While reading the book Numerical Linear Algebra by Trefethen and Bau, I came across the following example.



      enter image description here



      The authors indicate that $|J|_{infty} = 2$,
      however if I recall the definition of $|cdot|_{infty}$ correctly, $|[1, -1]|_{infty} = max(|1|, |{-1}|)$,
      which is obviously $1$.
      Is this just a typo (the argument still holds if $|J|_{infty} = 1$) or am I misinterpreting something?







      linear-algebra norm jacobian condition-number






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Jan 19 at 14:39









      PeiffapPeiffap

      487




      487






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          It is the subordinate matrix infinity norm defined as:



          $$|A|_{infty} =max_{1 leq i leq m}sum_{j=1}^{n}|a_{ij}|,$$
          for the matrix $$A=left(
          begin{array}{ccc}
          a_{11}&cdots&a_{1n}\
          vdots & ddots & vdots \
          a_{m1}&cdots&a_{mn}
          end{array}
          right). $$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why are we using the subordinate matrix infinity norm, instead of the vector infinity norm?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:51






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Is it because the Jacobian is a $1 times 2$ matrix, and not a vector?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Refer matrix norms induced by vector norms here.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Shelby
            Jan 19 at 14:55











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          It is the subordinate matrix infinity norm defined as:



          $$|A|_{infty} =max_{1 leq i leq m}sum_{j=1}^{n}|a_{ij}|,$$
          for the matrix $$A=left(
          begin{array}{ccc}
          a_{11}&cdots&a_{1n}\
          vdots & ddots & vdots \
          a_{m1}&cdots&a_{mn}
          end{array}
          right). $$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why are we using the subordinate matrix infinity norm, instead of the vector infinity norm?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:51






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Is it because the Jacobian is a $1 times 2$ matrix, and not a vector?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Refer matrix norms induced by vector norms here.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Shelby
            Jan 19 at 14:55
















          2












          $begingroup$

          It is the subordinate matrix infinity norm defined as:



          $$|A|_{infty} =max_{1 leq i leq m}sum_{j=1}^{n}|a_{ij}|,$$
          for the matrix $$A=left(
          begin{array}{ccc}
          a_{11}&cdots&a_{1n}\
          vdots & ddots & vdots \
          a_{m1}&cdots&a_{mn}
          end{array}
          right). $$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why are we using the subordinate matrix infinity norm, instead of the vector infinity norm?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:51






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Is it because the Jacobian is a $1 times 2$ matrix, and not a vector?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Refer matrix norms induced by vector norms here.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Shelby
            Jan 19 at 14:55














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          It is the subordinate matrix infinity norm defined as:



          $$|A|_{infty} =max_{1 leq i leq m}sum_{j=1}^{n}|a_{ij}|,$$
          for the matrix $$A=left(
          begin{array}{ccc}
          a_{11}&cdots&a_{1n}\
          vdots & ddots & vdots \
          a_{m1}&cdots&a_{mn}
          end{array}
          right). $$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          It is the subordinate matrix infinity norm defined as:



          $$|A|_{infty} =max_{1 leq i leq m}sum_{j=1}^{n}|a_{ij}|,$$
          for the matrix $$A=left(
          begin{array}{ccc}
          a_{11}&cdots&a_{1n}\
          vdots & ddots & vdots \
          a_{m1}&cdots&a_{mn}
          end{array}
          right). $$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 19 at 15:14

























          answered Jan 19 at 14:49









          Thomas ShelbyThomas Shelby

          3,3571524




          3,3571524












          • $begingroup$
            Why are we using the subordinate matrix infinity norm, instead of the vector infinity norm?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:51






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Is it because the Jacobian is a $1 times 2$ matrix, and not a vector?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Refer matrix norms induced by vector norms here.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Shelby
            Jan 19 at 14:55


















          • $begingroup$
            Why are we using the subordinate matrix infinity norm, instead of the vector infinity norm?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:51






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Is it because the Jacobian is a $1 times 2$ matrix, and not a vector?
            $endgroup$
            – Peiffap
            Jan 19 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Refer matrix norms induced by vector norms here.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Shelby
            Jan 19 at 14:55
















          $begingroup$
          Why are we using the subordinate matrix infinity norm, instead of the vector infinity norm?
          $endgroup$
          – Peiffap
          Jan 19 at 14:51




          $begingroup$
          Why are we using the subordinate matrix infinity norm, instead of the vector infinity norm?
          $endgroup$
          – Peiffap
          Jan 19 at 14:51




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Is it because the Jacobian is a $1 times 2$ matrix, and not a vector?
          $endgroup$
          – Peiffap
          Jan 19 at 14:52




          $begingroup$
          Is it because the Jacobian is a $1 times 2$ matrix, and not a vector?
          $endgroup$
          – Peiffap
          Jan 19 at 14:52












          $begingroup$
          Refer matrix norms induced by vector norms here.
          $endgroup$
          – Thomas Shelby
          Jan 19 at 14:55




          $begingroup$
          Refer matrix norms induced by vector norms here.
          $endgroup$
          – Thomas Shelby
          Jan 19 at 14:55


















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