I need help figuring out some discrete probabilities.












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If I have 3 fair 6-sided dice I need to find the probability that 4 events occur.



First, the chance that I roll no 1's. I think the probability is $(5/6)^3$. Then the second event is all 1's, I think the probability is $(1/6)^6$. Next is exactly one 1, and finally exactly two 1's.



I have no idea how to do these last two. My first guess was that exactly one 1 would be $(1/6)*(5/6)^2$ and two 1's would be $(1/6)^2*(5/6)$, but when I added all four values together I got a sum of about 0.7, so I know it's not right.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    If I have 3 fair 6-sided dice I need to find the probability that 4 events occur.



    First, the chance that I roll no 1's. I think the probability is $(5/6)^3$. Then the second event is all 1's, I think the probability is $(1/6)^6$. Next is exactly one 1, and finally exactly two 1's.



    I have no idea how to do these last two. My first guess was that exactly one 1 would be $(1/6)*(5/6)^2$ and two 1's would be $(1/6)^2*(5/6)$, but when I added all four values together I got a sum of about 0.7, so I know it's not right.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      If I have 3 fair 6-sided dice I need to find the probability that 4 events occur.



      First, the chance that I roll no 1's. I think the probability is $(5/6)^3$. Then the second event is all 1's, I think the probability is $(1/6)^6$. Next is exactly one 1, and finally exactly two 1's.



      I have no idea how to do these last two. My first guess was that exactly one 1 would be $(1/6)*(5/6)^2$ and two 1's would be $(1/6)^2*(5/6)$, but when I added all four values together I got a sum of about 0.7, so I know it's not right.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      If I have 3 fair 6-sided dice I need to find the probability that 4 events occur.



      First, the chance that I roll no 1's. I think the probability is $(5/6)^3$. Then the second event is all 1's, I think the probability is $(1/6)^6$. Next is exactly one 1, and finally exactly two 1's.



      I have no idea how to do these last two. My first guess was that exactly one 1 would be $(1/6)*(5/6)^2$ and two 1's would be $(1/6)^2*(5/6)$, but when I added all four values together I got a sum of about 0.7, so I know it's not right.







      probability






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      asked Jan 17 at 18:54









      Matthew RileyMatthew Riley

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          $begingroup$

          The first two are correct. You have the right idea for the second two, but you're a bit off.



          For exactly one $1$, your probability of $frac{1}{6}(frac{5}{6})^{2}$ can be thought of as "roll a $1$ and then don't roll a $1$ for the next $2$ rolls". However the $1$ can occur on any of the three rolls, so this needs to be multiplied by $3$:
          $$3cdotfrac{1}{6}cdotleft(frac{5}{6}right)^{2}$$



          For exactly two $1$s, we'll use the same logic as above. There are $binom{3}{2}$ possible positions for the $1$s, and then a $(1/6)^{2}$ probability to roll them, and a $5/6$ probability to avoid them on the other rolls. So
          $$binom{3}{2}left(frac{1}{6}right)^{2}frac{5}{6}$$






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            1 Answer
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            $begingroup$

            The first two are correct. You have the right idea for the second two, but you're a bit off.



            For exactly one $1$, your probability of $frac{1}{6}(frac{5}{6})^{2}$ can be thought of as "roll a $1$ and then don't roll a $1$ for the next $2$ rolls". However the $1$ can occur on any of the three rolls, so this needs to be multiplied by $3$:
            $$3cdotfrac{1}{6}cdotleft(frac{5}{6}right)^{2}$$



            For exactly two $1$s, we'll use the same logic as above. There are $binom{3}{2}$ possible positions for the $1$s, and then a $(1/6)^{2}$ probability to roll them, and a $5/6$ probability to avoid them on the other rolls. So
            $$binom{3}{2}left(frac{1}{6}right)^{2}frac{5}{6}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              The first two are correct. You have the right idea for the second two, but you're a bit off.



              For exactly one $1$, your probability of $frac{1}{6}(frac{5}{6})^{2}$ can be thought of as "roll a $1$ and then don't roll a $1$ for the next $2$ rolls". However the $1$ can occur on any of the three rolls, so this needs to be multiplied by $3$:
              $$3cdotfrac{1}{6}cdotleft(frac{5}{6}right)^{2}$$



              For exactly two $1$s, we'll use the same logic as above. There are $binom{3}{2}$ possible positions for the $1$s, and then a $(1/6)^{2}$ probability to roll them, and a $5/6$ probability to avoid them on the other rolls. So
              $$binom{3}{2}left(frac{1}{6}right)^{2}frac{5}{6}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                The first two are correct. You have the right idea for the second two, but you're a bit off.



                For exactly one $1$, your probability of $frac{1}{6}(frac{5}{6})^{2}$ can be thought of as "roll a $1$ and then don't roll a $1$ for the next $2$ rolls". However the $1$ can occur on any of the three rolls, so this needs to be multiplied by $3$:
                $$3cdotfrac{1}{6}cdotleft(frac{5}{6}right)^{2}$$



                For exactly two $1$s, we'll use the same logic as above. There are $binom{3}{2}$ possible positions for the $1$s, and then a $(1/6)^{2}$ probability to roll them, and a $5/6$ probability to avoid them on the other rolls. So
                $$binom{3}{2}left(frac{1}{6}right)^{2}frac{5}{6}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The first two are correct. You have the right idea for the second two, but you're a bit off.



                For exactly one $1$, your probability of $frac{1}{6}(frac{5}{6})^{2}$ can be thought of as "roll a $1$ and then don't roll a $1$ for the next $2$ rolls". However the $1$ can occur on any of the three rolls, so this needs to be multiplied by $3$:
                $$3cdotfrac{1}{6}cdotleft(frac{5}{6}right)^{2}$$



                For exactly two $1$s, we'll use the same logic as above. There are $binom{3}{2}$ possible positions for the $1$s, and then a $(1/6)^{2}$ probability to roll them, and a $5/6$ probability to avoid them on the other rolls. So
                $$binom{3}{2}left(frac{1}{6}right)^{2}frac{5}{6}$$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 17 at 19:00









                pwerthpwerth

                3,233417




                3,233417






























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