How can I prove that no limit exists for this function over this particular interval?












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I was given the following function: $$ f(x) = begin{cases} frac{1}{q} &text{if }x = frac{p}{q} text{ is rational, reduced to lowest terms} \ 0 &text{if }x text{ is irrational}end{cases}$$
And was asked to attempt to prove or disprove whether or not, for some $j$ on the interval $(0,1)$, $lim limits_{x to j}{}f(x)$ exists.

Intuitively, I know that I can find an irrational number between any two rationals which would obviously result in some discontinuity. I considered the idea that maybe it could be possible assuming that among the infinitely many rationals on the interval which also share a common denominator and could be used to find the limit, but that obviously would not work. However, I cannot formulate any proper line of reason to prove the limit does not exist.
How can I prove this, as formally as possible?










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    $begingroup$
    This called Thomae's function, see here en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function. The limit exists at irrational points.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom.
    Jan 24 at 4:32


















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$begingroup$


I was given the following function: $$ f(x) = begin{cases} frac{1}{q} &text{if }x = frac{p}{q} text{ is rational, reduced to lowest terms} \ 0 &text{if }x text{ is irrational}end{cases}$$
And was asked to attempt to prove or disprove whether or not, for some $j$ on the interval $(0,1)$, $lim limits_{x to j}{}f(x)$ exists.

Intuitively, I know that I can find an irrational number between any two rationals which would obviously result in some discontinuity. I considered the idea that maybe it could be possible assuming that among the infinitely many rationals on the interval which also share a common denominator and could be used to find the limit, but that obviously would not work. However, I cannot formulate any proper line of reason to prove the limit does not exist.
How can I prove this, as formally as possible?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    This called Thomae's function, see here en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function. The limit exists at irrational points.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom.
    Jan 24 at 4:32
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


I was given the following function: $$ f(x) = begin{cases} frac{1}{q} &text{if }x = frac{p}{q} text{ is rational, reduced to lowest terms} \ 0 &text{if }x text{ is irrational}end{cases}$$
And was asked to attempt to prove or disprove whether or not, for some $j$ on the interval $(0,1)$, $lim limits_{x to j}{}f(x)$ exists.

Intuitively, I know that I can find an irrational number between any two rationals which would obviously result in some discontinuity. I considered the idea that maybe it could be possible assuming that among the infinitely many rationals on the interval which also share a common denominator and could be used to find the limit, but that obviously would not work. However, I cannot formulate any proper line of reason to prove the limit does not exist.
How can I prove this, as formally as possible?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I was given the following function: $$ f(x) = begin{cases} frac{1}{q} &text{if }x = frac{p}{q} text{ is rational, reduced to lowest terms} \ 0 &text{if }x text{ is irrational}end{cases}$$
And was asked to attempt to prove or disprove whether or not, for some $j$ on the interval $(0,1)$, $lim limits_{x to j}{}f(x)$ exists.

Intuitively, I know that I can find an irrational number between any two rationals which would obviously result in some discontinuity. I considered the idea that maybe it could be possible assuming that among the infinitely many rationals on the interval which also share a common denominator and could be used to find the limit, but that obviously would not work. However, I cannot formulate any proper line of reason to prove the limit does not exist.
How can I prove this, as formally as possible?







limits irrational-numbers rational-numbers






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asked Jan 24 at 4:23









nine-hundrednine-hundred

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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    This called Thomae's function, see here en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function. The limit exists at irrational points.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom.
    Jan 24 at 4:32
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    This called Thomae's function, see here en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function. The limit exists at irrational points.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom.
    Jan 24 at 4:32










2




2




$begingroup$
This called Thomae's function, see here en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function. The limit exists at irrational points.
$endgroup$
– Tom.
Jan 24 at 4:32






$begingroup$
This called Thomae's function, see here en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function. The limit exists at irrational points.
$endgroup$
– Tom.
Jan 24 at 4:32












1 Answer
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Recall the definition of $lim_{x to j}f(x)=a$:



$$mbox{Given} varepsilon > 0 mbox{there exists} delta > 0\ mbox{such that} left| f(x) - aright|<varepsilon\ mbox{whenever} 0<left| x-j right| <delta$$



Now for any $j$, given $varepsilon>0$, if we choose $delta$ small enough we can ensure that the denominator $q$ of any fraction $frac{p}{q}$ (in its lowest terms) in the interval $left(j-delta,j+deltaright)$ satisfies $q>frac{1}{varepsilon}$, except possibly for $j$ itself, if it is rational. So that $0leleft| f(x)right|<varepsilon$ whenever $0<left|x-jright|<delta$.



Plugging this into the definition of a limit we see:



$$lim_{xto j}f(x) = 0 mbox{for all} jinleft(0,1right)$$



Now a function $g$ is continuous at $j$ iff $lim_{xto j}g(x)=g(j)$. It follows that $f$ is discontinuous at rational points and continuous at irrational points.






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    $begingroup$

    Recall the definition of $lim_{x to j}f(x)=a$:



    $$mbox{Given} varepsilon > 0 mbox{there exists} delta > 0\ mbox{such that} left| f(x) - aright|<varepsilon\ mbox{whenever} 0<left| x-j right| <delta$$



    Now for any $j$, given $varepsilon>0$, if we choose $delta$ small enough we can ensure that the denominator $q$ of any fraction $frac{p}{q}$ (in its lowest terms) in the interval $left(j-delta,j+deltaright)$ satisfies $q>frac{1}{varepsilon}$, except possibly for $j$ itself, if it is rational. So that $0leleft| f(x)right|<varepsilon$ whenever $0<left|x-jright|<delta$.



    Plugging this into the definition of a limit we see:



    $$lim_{xto j}f(x) = 0 mbox{for all} jinleft(0,1right)$$



    Now a function $g$ is continuous at $j$ iff $lim_{xto j}g(x)=g(j)$. It follows that $f$ is discontinuous at rational points and continuous at irrational points.






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      1












      $begingroup$

      Recall the definition of $lim_{x to j}f(x)=a$:



      $$mbox{Given} varepsilon > 0 mbox{there exists} delta > 0\ mbox{such that} left| f(x) - aright|<varepsilon\ mbox{whenever} 0<left| x-j right| <delta$$



      Now for any $j$, given $varepsilon>0$, if we choose $delta$ small enough we can ensure that the denominator $q$ of any fraction $frac{p}{q}$ (in its lowest terms) in the interval $left(j-delta,j+deltaright)$ satisfies $q>frac{1}{varepsilon}$, except possibly for $j$ itself, if it is rational. So that $0leleft| f(x)right|<varepsilon$ whenever $0<left|x-jright|<delta$.



      Plugging this into the definition of a limit we see:



      $$lim_{xto j}f(x) = 0 mbox{for all} jinleft(0,1right)$$



      Now a function $g$ is continuous at $j$ iff $lim_{xto j}g(x)=g(j)$. It follows that $f$ is discontinuous at rational points and continuous at irrational points.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Recall the definition of $lim_{x to j}f(x)=a$:



        $$mbox{Given} varepsilon > 0 mbox{there exists} delta > 0\ mbox{such that} left| f(x) - aright|<varepsilon\ mbox{whenever} 0<left| x-j right| <delta$$



        Now for any $j$, given $varepsilon>0$, if we choose $delta$ small enough we can ensure that the denominator $q$ of any fraction $frac{p}{q}$ (in its lowest terms) in the interval $left(j-delta,j+deltaright)$ satisfies $q>frac{1}{varepsilon}$, except possibly for $j$ itself, if it is rational. So that $0leleft| f(x)right|<varepsilon$ whenever $0<left|x-jright|<delta$.



        Plugging this into the definition of a limit we see:



        $$lim_{xto j}f(x) = 0 mbox{for all} jinleft(0,1right)$$



        Now a function $g$ is continuous at $j$ iff $lim_{xto j}g(x)=g(j)$. It follows that $f$ is discontinuous at rational points and continuous at irrational points.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Recall the definition of $lim_{x to j}f(x)=a$:



        $$mbox{Given} varepsilon > 0 mbox{there exists} delta > 0\ mbox{such that} left| f(x) - aright|<varepsilon\ mbox{whenever} 0<left| x-j right| <delta$$



        Now for any $j$, given $varepsilon>0$, if we choose $delta$ small enough we can ensure that the denominator $q$ of any fraction $frac{p}{q}$ (in its lowest terms) in the interval $left(j-delta,j+deltaright)$ satisfies $q>frac{1}{varepsilon}$, except possibly for $j$ itself, if it is rational. So that $0leleft| f(x)right|<varepsilon$ whenever $0<left|x-jright|<delta$.



        Plugging this into the definition of a limit we see:



        $$lim_{xto j}f(x) = 0 mbox{for all} jinleft(0,1right)$$



        Now a function $g$ is continuous at $j$ iff $lim_{xto j}g(x)=g(j)$. It follows that $f$ is discontinuous at rational points and continuous at irrational points.







        share|cite|improve this answer














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        edited Jan 24 at 8:02

























        answered Jan 24 at 7:51









        Bernard HurleyBernard Hurley

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