Can elements in a group have more than one inverse












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$begingroup$


I had to prove if a set of $2times 2$ matrices is a group with respect to multiplication where I define a group as the set of all
$$A_alpha = begin{bmatrix}cosalpha&-sinalpha \ sinalpha & cosalpha end{bmatrix}$$
where $alphainBbb R$.



Now its fairly easy to prove that this set is non-empty and satisfies closure and associativity w.r.t multiplication as well as identity. What I was confused about here was that since $A_{2pi+alpha}=A_alpha$, then will this set be considered to have more than one identity element as $A_{2npi}$ will be the identity element.



Likewise, when finding out the inverse, I had already derived that $A_alpha*A_beta=A_{alpha+beta}$, if I took inverse of $A_alpha$ to be $A_beta$, the relation between $beta;text{and};alpha;text{is}$ $$beta=2npi-alpha$$
Here, again, although we get the same matrices for all the different $beta$ values, will we consider $alpha$ to have more than one inverses.
In short, what I am confused about is that we get a single matrix for a lot of different values of $alpha$. So are they all supposed to be considered as the same element of the set of matrices.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I had to prove if a set of $2times 2$ matrices is a group with respect to multiplication where I define a group as the set of all
    $$A_alpha = begin{bmatrix}cosalpha&-sinalpha \ sinalpha & cosalpha end{bmatrix}$$
    where $alphainBbb R$.



    Now its fairly easy to prove that this set is non-empty and satisfies closure and associativity w.r.t multiplication as well as identity. What I was confused about here was that since $A_{2pi+alpha}=A_alpha$, then will this set be considered to have more than one identity element as $A_{2npi}$ will be the identity element.



    Likewise, when finding out the inverse, I had already derived that $A_alpha*A_beta=A_{alpha+beta}$, if I took inverse of $A_alpha$ to be $A_beta$, the relation between $beta;text{and};alpha;text{is}$ $$beta=2npi-alpha$$
    Here, again, although we get the same matrices for all the different $beta$ values, will we consider $alpha$ to have more than one inverses.
    In short, what I am confused about is that we get a single matrix for a lot of different values of $alpha$. So are they all supposed to be considered as the same element of the set of matrices.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I had to prove if a set of $2times 2$ matrices is a group with respect to multiplication where I define a group as the set of all
      $$A_alpha = begin{bmatrix}cosalpha&-sinalpha \ sinalpha & cosalpha end{bmatrix}$$
      where $alphainBbb R$.



      Now its fairly easy to prove that this set is non-empty and satisfies closure and associativity w.r.t multiplication as well as identity. What I was confused about here was that since $A_{2pi+alpha}=A_alpha$, then will this set be considered to have more than one identity element as $A_{2npi}$ will be the identity element.



      Likewise, when finding out the inverse, I had already derived that $A_alpha*A_beta=A_{alpha+beta}$, if I took inverse of $A_alpha$ to be $A_beta$, the relation between $beta;text{and};alpha;text{is}$ $$beta=2npi-alpha$$
      Here, again, although we get the same matrices for all the different $beta$ values, will we consider $alpha$ to have more than one inverses.
      In short, what I am confused about is that we get a single matrix for a lot of different values of $alpha$. So are they all supposed to be considered as the same element of the set of matrices.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I had to prove if a set of $2times 2$ matrices is a group with respect to multiplication where I define a group as the set of all
      $$A_alpha = begin{bmatrix}cosalpha&-sinalpha \ sinalpha & cosalpha end{bmatrix}$$
      where $alphainBbb R$.



      Now its fairly easy to prove that this set is non-empty and satisfies closure and associativity w.r.t multiplication as well as identity. What I was confused about here was that since $A_{2pi+alpha}=A_alpha$, then will this set be considered to have more than one identity element as $A_{2npi}$ will be the identity element.



      Likewise, when finding out the inverse, I had already derived that $A_alpha*A_beta=A_{alpha+beta}$, if I took inverse of $A_alpha$ to be $A_beta$, the relation between $beta;text{and};alpha;text{is}$ $$beta=2npi-alpha$$
      Here, again, although we get the same matrices for all the different $beta$ values, will we consider $alpha$ to have more than one inverses.
      In short, what I am confused about is that we get a single matrix for a lot of different values of $alpha$. So are they all supposed to be considered as the same element of the set of matrices.







      matrices group-theory trigonometry elementary-set-theory






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      edited Jan 4 '18 at 9:56









      Arnaud D.

      16.2k52444




      16.2k52444










      asked Jan 4 '18 at 9:49









      Siddharth JhaSiddharth Jha

      589




      589






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          "No" as answer on the question in the title.



          If $a=b$ then the set ${a,b}$ has exactly one element.



          You could say that $a$ and $b$ are just labels of the same mathematical object.



          In your case ${A_{2npi+alpha}mid ninmathbb Z}={A_{alpha}}$ since $A_{2npi+alpha}=A_{alpha}$ for each $ninmathbb Z$.



          So there is exactly one identity.



          Same story for inverses.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            5












            $begingroup$

            The catch here is that $A_{alpha+2pi}$ is actually equal to $A_{alpha}$ (since $cos{(x+2pi)}=cos(x)$ and likewise for $sin$). So the matrices $A_{-alpha}$, $A_{2pi-alpha}$ are indeed both inverses for $A_{alpha}$, but that is not a problem, since they are the same element!






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              active

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              active

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              1












              $begingroup$

              "No" as answer on the question in the title.



              If $a=b$ then the set ${a,b}$ has exactly one element.



              You could say that $a$ and $b$ are just labels of the same mathematical object.



              In your case ${A_{2npi+alpha}mid ninmathbb Z}={A_{alpha}}$ since $A_{2npi+alpha}=A_{alpha}$ for each $ninmathbb Z$.



              So there is exactly one identity.



              Same story for inverses.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                "No" as answer on the question in the title.



                If $a=b$ then the set ${a,b}$ has exactly one element.



                You could say that $a$ and $b$ are just labels of the same mathematical object.



                In your case ${A_{2npi+alpha}mid ninmathbb Z}={A_{alpha}}$ since $A_{2npi+alpha}=A_{alpha}$ for each $ninmathbb Z$.



                So there is exactly one identity.



                Same story for inverses.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  "No" as answer on the question in the title.



                  If $a=b$ then the set ${a,b}$ has exactly one element.



                  You could say that $a$ and $b$ are just labels of the same mathematical object.



                  In your case ${A_{2npi+alpha}mid ninmathbb Z}={A_{alpha}}$ since $A_{2npi+alpha}=A_{alpha}$ for each $ninmathbb Z$.



                  So there is exactly one identity.



                  Same story for inverses.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  "No" as answer on the question in the title.



                  If $a=b$ then the set ${a,b}$ has exactly one element.



                  You could say that $a$ and $b$ are just labels of the same mathematical object.



                  In your case ${A_{2npi+alpha}mid ninmathbb Z}={A_{alpha}}$ since $A_{2npi+alpha}=A_{alpha}$ for each $ninmathbb Z$.



                  So there is exactly one identity.



                  Same story for inverses.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jan 4 '18 at 10:02

























                  answered Jan 4 '18 at 9:56









                  drhabdrhab

                  103k545136




                  103k545136























                      5












                      $begingroup$

                      The catch here is that $A_{alpha+2pi}$ is actually equal to $A_{alpha}$ (since $cos{(x+2pi)}=cos(x)$ and likewise for $sin$). So the matrices $A_{-alpha}$, $A_{2pi-alpha}$ are indeed both inverses for $A_{alpha}$, but that is not a problem, since they are the same element!






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        5












                        $begingroup$

                        The catch here is that $A_{alpha+2pi}$ is actually equal to $A_{alpha}$ (since $cos{(x+2pi)}=cos(x)$ and likewise for $sin$). So the matrices $A_{-alpha}$, $A_{2pi-alpha}$ are indeed both inverses for $A_{alpha}$, but that is not a problem, since they are the same element!






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          5












                          5








                          5





                          $begingroup$

                          The catch here is that $A_{alpha+2pi}$ is actually equal to $A_{alpha}$ (since $cos{(x+2pi)}=cos(x)$ and likewise for $sin$). So the matrices $A_{-alpha}$, $A_{2pi-alpha}$ are indeed both inverses for $A_{alpha}$, but that is not a problem, since they are the same element!






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          The catch here is that $A_{alpha+2pi}$ is actually equal to $A_{alpha}$ (since $cos{(x+2pi)}=cos(x)$ and likewise for $sin$). So the matrices $A_{-alpha}$, $A_{2pi-alpha}$ are indeed both inverses for $A_{alpha}$, but that is not a problem, since they are the same element!







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 4 '18 at 9:53









                          idokidok

                          1,405313




                          1,405313






























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