Expand $cos(x)$ in odd Fourier series.












1












$begingroup$



Expand $cos(x)$ in sinus-series in the interval $(0,pi/2)$ and use
the result to calculate $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n^2}{(4n^2-1)^2}.$$




Since we only need the odd terms in the Fourier expansion, we know that $a_n=0$, so we only need $b_n$ in order to find the sine expansion.



In my book, there is a chapter on "Fourier series on intervals", and there they state that:





If $f$ is a piecewise smooth function on $[0,l]$, then the Fourier sine expansion is given by



$$f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_nsinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right),tag{1}$$



where



$$b_n=frac{2}{l}intlimits_{0}^{l}f(x)sinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right).tag{2}$$





So we should be able to use only $(1)$ and $(2)$ with $l=pi/2$ to solve this problem. So



begin{align}
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx = frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}tag{3}.
end{align}



This gives



$$cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx), quad forall ninmathbb{N}tag{4}$$



2 questions remain:




  1. I used wolfram alpha to calculate the integral in $(3)$. What methods do I use to do this? Repeated integration by parts and solve for the integral?

  2. How do I calculate the desired sum?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The function to expand is probably not the regular $cos$. Instead, consider the function that coincides with $cos$ on $(0, frac pi 2)$, that is odd and is $pi$ periodic.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Jan 25 at 16:30












  • $begingroup$
    But they explicitly state that I'm to expand $cos(x)$. So I am pretty convinced that $cos(x)$ is the regular cos that is to be expanded. I might have misunderstood your comment.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 17:30


















1












$begingroup$



Expand $cos(x)$ in sinus-series in the interval $(0,pi/2)$ and use
the result to calculate $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n^2}{(4n^2-1)^2}.$$




Since we only need the odd terms in the Fourier expansion, we know that $a_n=0$, so we only need $b_n$ in order to find the sine expansion.



In my book, there is a chapter on "Fourier series on intervals", and there they state that:





If $f$ is a piecewise smooth function on $[0,l]$, then the Fourier sine expansion is given by



$$f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_nsinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right),tag{1}$$



where



$$b_n=frac{2}{l}intlimits_{0}^{l}f(x)sinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right).tag{2}$$





So we should be able to use only $(1)$ and $(2)$ with $l=pi/2$ to solve this problem. So



begin{align}
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx = frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}tag{3}.
end{align}



This gives



$$cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx), quad forall ninmathbb{N}tag{4}$$



2 questions remain:




  1. I used wolfram alpha to calculate the integral in $(3)$. What methods do I use to do this? Repeated integration by parts and solve for the integral?

  2. How do I calculate the desired sum?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The function to expand is probably not the regular $cos$. Instead, consider the function that coincides with $cos$ on $(0, frac pi 2)$, that is odd and is $pi$ periodic.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Jan 25 at 16:30












  • $begingroup$
    But they explicitly state that I'm to expand $cos(x)$. So I am pretty convinced that $cos(x)$ is the regular cos that is to be expanded. I might have misunderstood your comment.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 17:30
















1












1








1





$begingroup$



Expand $cos(x)$ in sinus-series in the interval $(0,pi/2)$ and use
the result to calculate $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n^2}{(4n^2-1)^2}.$$




Since we only need the odd terms in the Fourier expansion, we know that $a_n=0$, so we only need $b_n$ in order to find the sine expansion.



In my book, there is a chapter on "Fourier series on intervals", and there they state that:





If $f$ is a piecewise smooth function on $[0,l]$, then the Fourier sine expansion is given by



$$f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_nsinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right),tag{1}$$



where



$$b_n=frac{2}{l}intlimits_{0}^{l}f(x)sinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right).tag{2}$$





So we should be able to use only $(1)$ and $(2)$ with $l=pi/2$ to solve this problem. So



begin{align}
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx = frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}tag{3}.
end{align}



This gives



$$cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx), quad forall ninmathbb{N}tag{4}$$



2 questions remain:




  1. I used wolfram alpha to calculate the integral in $(3)$. What methods do I use to do this? Repeated integration by parts and solve for the integral?

  2. How do I calculate the desired sum?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Expand $cos(x)$ in sinus-series in the interval $(0,pi/2)$ and use
the result to calculate $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n^2}{(4n^2-1)^2}.$$




Since we only need the odd terms in the Fourier expansion, we know that $a_n=0$, so we only need $b_n$ in order to find the sine expansion.



In my book, there is a chapter on "Fourier series on intervals", and there they state that:





If $f$ is a piecewise smooth function on $[0,l]$, then the Fourier sine expansion is given by



$$f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_nsinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right),tag{1}$$



where



$$b_n=frac{2}{l}intlimits_{0}^{l}f(x)sinleft(frac{pi n x}{l}right).tag{2}$$





So we should be able to use only $(1)$ and $(2)$ with $l=pi/2$ to solve this problem. So



begin{align}
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx = frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}tag{3}.
end{align}



This gives



$$cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx), quad forall ninmathbb{N}tag{4}$$



2 questions remain:




  1. I used wolfram alpha to calculate the integral in $(3)$. What methods do I use to do this? Repeated integration by parts and solve for the integral?

  2. How do I calculate the desired sum?







fourier-analysis fourier-series






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 25 at 21:12







Parseval

















asked Jan 25 at 16:21









ParsevalParseval

2,9951719




2,9951719












  • $begingroup$
    The function to expand is probably not the regular $cos$. Instead, consider the function that coincides with $cos$ on $(0, frac pi 2)$, that is odd and is $pi$ periodic.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Jan 25 at 16:30












  • $begingroup$
    But they explicitly state that I'm to expand $cos(x)$. So I am pretty convinced that $cos(x)$ is the regular cos that is to be expanded. I might have misunderstood your comment.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 17:30




















  • $begingroup$
    The function to expand is probably not the regular $cos$. Instead, consider the function that coincides with $cos$ on $(0, frac pi 2)$, that is odd and is $pi$ periodic.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Jan 25 at 16:30












  • $begingroup$
    But they explicitly state that I'm to expand $cos(x)$. So I am pretty convinced that $cos(x)$ is the regular cos that is to be expanded. I might have misunderstood your comment.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 17:30


















$begingroup$
The function to expand is probably not the regular $cos$. Instead, consider the function that coincides with $cos$ on $(0, frac pi 2)$, that is odd and is $pi$ periodic.
$endgroup$
– Stefan Lafon
Jan 25 at 16:30






$begingroup$
The function to expand is probably not the regular $cos$. Instead, consider the function that coincides with $cos$ on $(0, frac pi 2)$, that is odd and is $pi$ periodic.
$endgroup$
– Stefan Lafon
Jan 25 at 16:30














$begingroup$
But they explicitly state that I'm to expand $cos(x)$. So I am pretty convinced that $cos(x)$ is the regular cos that is to be expanded. I might have misunderstood your comment.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 17:30






$begingroup$
But they explicitly state that I'm to expand $cos(x)$. So I am pretty convinced that $cos(x)$ is the regular cos that is to be expanded. I might have misunderstood your comment.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 17:30












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

As posted by the OP, two steps remain:




  1. Perform the integral:


$$
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx \
= frac{1}{i pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}e^{ix(1+2n)}- e^{ix(1-2n)}+e^{-ix(1-2n)}-e^{-ix(1+2n)}dx \
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{e^{ix(1+2n)}}{i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} - frac{e^{ix(1-2n)}}{i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} + frac{e^{-ix(1-2n)}}{-i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} -frac{e^{-ix(1+2n)}}{-i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} right)\
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1+2n)} - frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1-2n)} + frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1-2n)} - frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1+2n)} right)\
= frac{1}{- pi (1 - 4 n^2)} left( -4n(i(-1)^n - 1) - 4n (-i(-1)^n - 1) right)\
= frac{-8n}{pi(1-4n^2)} \
= frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}
$$

where the last step only indicates the "desired" solution by WolframAlpha, where anyway $sin(pi n) = 0$ .



2 Calculating the desired sum.



From OP's last result,
$$
cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx),
$$

multiply this formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate, using the integral which was just derived:



$$
frac{pi}{4} = intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)cdotsin(2nx) dx = \
frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} cdot frac{2 n}{4n^2 -1}\
= frac{16}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Wonderful, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 28 at 12:46



















1












$begingroup$

Consider the function $f(x) = cos(x) cdot {rm{sign}}(x)$ in the interval $(-pi, pi)$. This function is identical to $cos(x)$ in the interval $(0, pi/2)$ so the expansion will be correct in that interval.



You want $f(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(mx)$.



Integrating with $sin(nx)$ gives



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( n x)sin(nx)dx = pi
$$

$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( m x)sin(nx)dx = 0 quad (mne n)
$$

and



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}cos(x)cdot {rm{sign}}(x) cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} tag{*}
$$



So you have
$$
cos(x) = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} sin(nx)
$$

where the coefficients are nonzero for even n.



Substituting $n$ with $2 m$ gives
$$
cos(x) = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} sin(2 m x)
$$



No use the integral in (*) again: multiply the last formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate:



$$
frac{pi}{2} = intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdotsin(2mx) dx = frac{32}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a nice solution and I'll give you an upvote. However this answer fails to provide an answer that aids in helping me to understand my mistake. I'd rather learn where I went wrong in my own attempt then see a customized soluton that would only work for this particular problem. For example, I've never had to deal with the $sgn(x)$ function and there is not a single example in the book where they use a method like this to solve a similar problem. This problem is solveable using standard given formulae and I want to know why it did not work this time.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 19:29










  • $begingroup$
    If you want it without that symmetry condition, you would have to set $cos(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(2mx)$ which we know (in hindsight) from the solution above. It is not clear to me a priori that the odd terms $sin((2m+1)x)$ should not be present in the series at all - do you have an argument? Then, you can integrate $int_0^{pi/2} sin(2mx) sin(2nx) dx = 0$ for $m ne n$ and everything works as above. (continued)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59










  • $begingroup$
    (continued) The point is that in general, $int_0^{pi/2} sin(mx) sin(nx) dx $ is not zero and therefore the calculation of the coefficients does not work straightforward if you cannot exclude the odd values of m right from the start.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59












  • $begingroup$
    I've been working on this problem a bit further now, I'll edit the answer and show you what I mean by applying the formulas straight on. Stand by.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 20:52










  • $begingroup$
    Please see my edit now Andreas. Thanks for the time and effort you put in, I apreciate it. Oh and the answer $pi^2/64$ is indeed correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 21:13













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2 Answers
2






active

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votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

As posted by the OP, two steps remain:




  1. Perform the integral:


$$
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx \
= frac{1}{i pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}e^{ix(1+2n)}- e^{ix(1-2n)}+e^{-ix(1-2n)}-e^{-ix(1+2n)}dx \
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{e^{ix(1+2n)}}{i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} - frac{e^{ix(1-2n)}}{i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} + frac{e^{-ix(1-2n)}}{-i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} -frac{e^{-ix(1+2n)}}{-i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} right)\
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1+2n)} - frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1-2n)} + frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1-2n)} - frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1+2n)} right)\
= frac{1}{- pi (1 - 4 n^2)} left( -4n(i(-1)^n - 1) - 4n (-i(-1)^n - 1) right)\
= frac{-8n}{pi(1-4n^2)} \
= frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}
$$

where the last step only indicates the "desired" solution by WolframAlpha, where anyway $sin(pi n) = 0$ .



2 Calculating the desired sum.



From OP's last result,
$$
cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx),
$$

multiply this formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate, using the integral which was just derived:



$$
frac{pi}{4} = intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)cdotsin(2nx) dx = \
frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} cdot frac{2 n}{4n^2 -1}\
= frac{16}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Wonderful, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 28 at 12:46
















1












$begingroup$

As posted by the OP, two steps remain:




  1. Perform the integral:


$$
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx \
= frac{1}{i pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}e^{ix(1+2n)}- e^{ix(1-2n)}+e^{-ix(1-2n)}-e^{-ix(1+2n)}dx \
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{e^{ix(1+2n)}}{i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} - frac{e^{ix(1-2n)}}{i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} + frac{e^{-ix(1-2n)}}{-i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} -frac{e^{-ix(1+2n)}}{-i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} right)\
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1+2n)} - frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1-2n)} + frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1-2n)} - frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1+2n)} right)\
= frac{1}{- pi (1 - 4 n^2)} left( -4n(i(-1)^n - 1) - 4n (-i(-1)^n - 1) right)\
= frac{-8n}{pi(1-4n^2)} \
= frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}
$$

where the last step only indicates the "desired" solution by WolframAlpha, where anyway $sin(pi n) = 0$ .



2 Calculating the desired sum.



From OP's last result,
$$
cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx),
$$

multiply this formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate, using the integral which was just derived:



$$
frac{pi}{4} = intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)cdotsin(2nx) dx = \
frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} cdot frac{2 n}{4n^2 -1}\
= frac{16}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Wonderful, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 28 at 12:46














1












1








1





$begingroup$

As posted by the OP, two steps remain:




  1. Perform the integral:


$$
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx \
= frac{1}{i pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}e^{ix(1+2n)}- e^{ix(1-2n)}+e^{-ix(1-2n)}-e^{-ix(1+2n)}dx \
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{e^{ix(1+2n)}}{i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} - frac{e^{ix(1-2n)}}{i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} + frac{e^{-ix(1-2n)}}{-i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} -frac{e^{-ix(1+2n)}}{-i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} right)\
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1+2n)} - frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1-2n)} + frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1-2n)} - frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1+2n)} right)\
= frac{1}{- pi (1 - 4 n^2)} left( -4n(i(-1)^n - 1) - 4n (-i(-1)^n - 1) right)\
= frac{-8n}{pi(1-4n^2)} \
= frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}
$$

where the last step only indicates the "desired" solution by WolframAlpha, where anyway $sin(pi n) = 0$ .



2 Calculating the desired sum.



From OP's last result,
$$
cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx),
$$

multiply this formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate, using the integral which was just derived:



$$
frac{pi}{4} = intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)cdotsin(2nx) dx = \
frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} cdot frac{2 n}{4n^2 -1}\
= frac{16}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



As posted by the OP, two steps remain:




  1. Perform the integral:


$$
b_n=frac{4}{pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)sin(2nx)dx \
= frac{1}{i pi}intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}e^{ix(1+2n)}- e^{ix(1-2n)}+e^{-ix(1-2n)}-e^{-ix(1+2n)}dx \
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{e^{ix(1+2n)}}{i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} - frac{e^{ix(1-2n)}}{i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} + frac{e^{-ix(1-2n)}}{-i(1-2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} -frac{e^{-ix(1+2n)}}{-i(1+2n)}|_{0}^{pi/2} right)\
= frac{1}{i pi} left(frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1+2n)} - frac{i(-1)^n - 1}{i(1-2n)} + frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1-2n)} - frac{-i(-1)^n - 1}{-i(1+2n)} right)\
= frac{1}{- pi (1 - 4 n^2)} left( -4n(i(-1)^n - 1) - 4n (-i(-1)^n - 1) right)\
= frac{-8n}{pi(1-4n^2)} \
= frac{4(sin(pi n)-2n)}{pi(1-4n^2)}
$$

where the last step only indicates the "desired" solution by WolframAlpha, where anyway $sin(pi n) = 0$ .



2 Calculating the desired sum.



From OP's last result,
$$
cos(x)=frac{8}{pi}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{n}{4n^2-1}sin(2nx),
$$

multiply this formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate, using the integral which was just derived:



$$
frac{pi}{4} = intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi/2}cos(x)cdotsin(2nx) dx = \
frac{8}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{4n^2 -1} cdot frac{2 n}{4n^2 -1}\
= frac{16}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n^2}{(4n^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 26 at 15:02









AndreasAndreas

8,3261137




8,3261137












  • $begingroup$
    Wonderful, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 28 at 12:46


















  • $begingroup$
    Wonderful, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 28 at 12:46
















$begingroup$
Wonderful, thanks a lot!
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 28 at 12:46




$begingroup$
Wonderful, thanks a lot!
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 28 at 12:46











1












$begingroup$

Consider the function $f(x) = cos(x) cdot {rm{sign}}(x)$ in the interval $(-pi, pi)$. This function is identical to $cos(x)$ in the interval $(0, pi/2)$ so the expansion will be correct in that interval.



You want $f(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(mx)$.



Integrating with $sin(nx)$ gives



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( n x)sin(nx)dx = pi
$$

$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( m x)sin(nx)dx = 0 quad (mne n)
$$

and



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}cos(x)cdot {rm{sign}}(x) cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} tag{*}
$$



So you have
$$
cos(x) = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} sin(nx)
$$

where the coefficients are nonzero for even n.



Substituting $n$ with $2 m$ gives
$$
cos(x) = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} sin(2 m x)
$$



No use the integral in (*) again: multiply the last formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate:



$$
frac{pi}{2} = intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdotsin(2mx) dx = frac{32}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a nice solution and I'll give you an upvote. However this answer fails to provide an answer that aids in helping me to understand my mistake. I'd rather learn where I went wrong in my own attempt then see a customized soluton that would only work for this particular problem. For example, I've never had to deal with the $sgn(x)$ function and there is not a single example in the book where they use a method like this to solve a similar problem. This problem is solveable using standard given formulae and I want to know why it did not work this time.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 19:29










  • $begingroup$
    If you want it without that symmetry condition, you would have to set $cos(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(2mx)$ which we know (in hindsight) from the solution above. It is not clear to me a priori that the odd terms $sin((2m+1)x)$ should not be present in the series at all - do you have an argument? Then, you can integrate $int_0^{pi/2} sin(2mx) sin(2nx) dx = 0$ for $m ne n$ and everything works as above. (continued)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59










  • $begingroup$
    (continued) The point is that in general, $int_0^{pi/2} sin(mx) sin(nx) dx $ is not zero and therefore the calculation of the coefficients does not work straightforward if you cannot exclude the odd values of m right from the start.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59












  • $begingroup$
    I've been working on this problem a bit further now, I'll edit the answer and show you what I mean by applying the formulas straight on. Stand by.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 20:52










  • $begingroup$
    Please see my edit now Andreas. Thanks for the time and effort you put in, I apreciate it. Oh and the answer $pi^2/64$ is indeed correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 21:13


















1












$begingroup$

Consider the function $f(x) = cos(x) cdot {rm{sign}}(x)$ in the interval $(-pi, pi)$. This function is identical to $cos(x)$ in the interval $(0, pi/2)$ so the expansion will be correct in that interval.



You want $f(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(mx)$.



Integrating with $sin(nx)$ gives



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( n x)sin(nx)dx = pi
$$

$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( m x)sin(nx)dx = 0 quad (mne n)
$$

and



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}cos(x)cdot {rm{sign}}(x) cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} tag{*}
$$



So you have
$$
cos(x) = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} sin(nx)
$$

where the coefficients are nonzero for even n.



Substituting $n$ with $2 m$ gives
$$
cos(x) = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} sin(2 m x)
$$



No use the integral in (*) again: multiply the last formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate:



$$
frac{pi}{2} = intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdotsin(2mx) dx = frac{32}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a nice solution and I'll give you an upvote. However this answer fails to provide an answer that aids in helping me to understand my mistake. I'd rather learn where I went wrong in my own attempt then see a customized soluton that would only work for this particular problem. For example, I've never had to deal with the $sgn(x)$ function and there is not a single example in the book where they use a method like this to solve a similar problem. This problem is solveable using standard given formulae and I want to know why it did not work this time.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 19:29










  • $begingroup$
    If you want it without that symmetry condition, you would have to set $cos(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(2mx)$ which we know (in hindsight) from the solution above. It is not clear to me a priori that the odd terms $sin((2m+1)x)$ should not be present in the series at all - do you have an argument? Then, you can integrate $int_0^{pi/2} sin(2mx) sin(2nx) dx = 0$ for $m ne n$ and everything works as above. (continued)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59










  • $begingroup$
    (continued) The point is that in general, $int_0^{pi/2} sin(mx) sin(nx) dx $ is not zero and therefore the calculation of the coefficients does not work straightforward if you cannot exclude the odd values of m right from the start.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59












  • $begingroup$
    I've been working on this problem a bit further now, I'll edit the answer and show you what I mean by applying the formulas straight on. Stand by.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 20:52










  • $begingroup$
    Please see my edit now Andreas. Thanks for the time and effort you put in, I apreciate it. Oh and the answer $pi^2/64$ is indeed correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 21:13
















1












1








1





$begingroup$

Consider the function $f(x) = cos(x) cdot {rm{sign}}(x)$ in the interval $(-pi, pi)$. This function is identical to $cos(x)$ in the interval $(0, pi/2)$ so the expansion will be correct in that interval.



You want $f(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(mx)$.



Integrating with $sin(nx)$ gives



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( n x)sin(nx)dx = pi
$$

$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( m x)sin(nx)dx = 0 quad (mne n)
$$

and



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}cos(x)cdot {rm{sign}}(x) cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} tag{*}
$$



So you have
$$
cos(x) = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} sin(nx)
$$

where the coefficients are nonzero for even n.



Substituting $n$ with $2 m$ gives
$$
cos(x) = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} sin(2 m x)
$$



No use the integral in (*) again: multiply the last formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate:



$$
frac{pi}{2} = intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdotsin(2mx) dx = frac{32}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Consider the function $f(x) = cos(x) cdot {rm{sign}}(x)$ in the interval $(-pi, pi)$. This function is identical to $cos(x)$ in the interval $(0, pi/2)$ so the expansion will be correct in that interval.



You want $f(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(mx)$.



Integrating with $sin(nx)$ gives



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( n x)sin(nx)dx = pi
$$

$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}sin( m x)sin(nx)dx = 0 quad (mne n)
$$

and



$$
intlimits_{-pi}^{pi}cos(x)cdot {rm{sign}}(x) cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdot sin(nx)dx = 2 frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} tag{*}
$$



So you have
$$
cos(x) = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n (1+cos(pi n))}{n^2 - 1} sin(nx)
$$

where the coefficients are nonzero for even n.



Substituting $n$ with $2 m$ gives
$$
cos(x) = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} sin(2 m x)
$$



No use the integral in (*) again: multiply the last formula with $cos(x) $ and integrate:



$$
frac{pi}{2} = intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos^2(x) dx = frac{8}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m}{4m^2 -1} intlimits_{0}^{pi}cos(x)cdotsin(2mx) dx = frac{32}{pi} sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2}
$$

so finally



$$
sum_{m=1}^infty frac{m^2}{(4m^2 -1)^2} = frac{pi^2}{64}
$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 25 at 18:16









AndreasAndreas

8,3261137




8,3261137












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a nice solution and I'll give you an upvote. However this answer fails to provide an answer that aids in helping me to understand my mistake. I'd rather learn where I went wrong in my own attempt then see a customized soluton that would only work for this particular problem. For example, I've never had to deal with the $sgn(x)$ function and there is not a single example in the book where they use a method like this to solve a similar problem. This problem is solveable using standard given formulae and I want to know why it did not work this time.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 19:29










  • $begingroup$
    If you want it without that symmetry condition, you would have to set $cos(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(2mx)$ which we know (in hindsight) from the solution above. It is not clear to me a priori that the odd terms $sin((2m+1)x)$ should not be present in the series at all - do you have an argument? Then, you can integrate $int_0^{pi/2} sin(2mx) sin(2nx) dx = 0$ for $m ne n$ and everything works as above. (continued)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59










  • $begingroup$
    (continued) The point is that in general, $int_0^{pi/2} sin(mx) sin(nx) dx $ is not zero and therefore the calculation of the coefficients does not work straightforward if you cannot exclude the odd values of m right from the start.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59












  • $begingroup$
    I've been working on this problem a bit further now, I'll edit the answer and show you what I mean by applying the formulas straight on. Stand by.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 20:52










  • $begingroup$
    Please see my edit now Andreas. Thanks for the time and effort you put in, I apreciate it. Oh and the answer $pi^2/64$ is indeed correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 21:13




















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a nice solution and I'll give you an upvote. However this answer fails to provide an answer that aids in helping me to understand my mistake. I'd rather learn where I went wrong in my own attempt then see a customized soluton that would only work for this particular problem. For example, I've never had to deal with the $sgn(x)$ function and there is not a single example in the book where they use a method like this to solve a similar problem. This problem is solveable using standard given formulae and I want to know why it did not work this time.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 19:29










  • $begingroup$
    If you want it without that symmetry condition, you would have to set $cos(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(2mx)$ which we know (in hindsight) from the solution above. It is not clear to me a priori that the odd terms $sin((2m+1)x)$ should not be present in the series at all - do you have an argument? Then, you can integrate $int_0^{pi/2} sin(2mx) sin(2nx) dx = 0$ for $m ne n$ and everything works as above. (continued)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59










  • $begingroup$
    (continued) The point is that in general, $int_0^{pi/2} sin(mx) sin(nx) dx $ is not zero and therefore the calculation of the coefficients does not work straightforward if you cannot exclude the odd values of m right from the start.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas
    Jan 25 at 19:59












  • $begingroup$
    I've been working on this problem a bit further now, I'll edit the answer and show you what I mean by applying the formulas straight on. Stand by.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 20:52










  • $begingroup$
    Please see my edit now Andreas. Thanks for the time and effort you put in, I apreciate it. Oh and the answer $pi^2/64$ is indeed correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Parseval
    Jan 25 at 21:13


















$begingroup$
Thanks for a nice solution and I'll give you an upvote. However this answer fails to provide an answer that aids in helping me to understand my mistake. I'd rather learn where I went wrong in my own attempt then see a customized soluton that would only work for this particular problem. For example, I've never had to deal with the $sgn(x)$ function and there is not a single example in the book where they use a method like this to solve a similar problem. This problem is solveable using standard given formulae and I want to know why it did not work this time.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 19:29




$begingroup$
Thanks for a nice solution and I'll give you an upvote. However this answer fails to provide an answer that aids in helping me to understand my mistake. I'd rather learn where I went wrong in my own attempt then see a customized soluton that would only work for this particular problem. For example, I've never had to deal with the $sgn(x)$ function and there is not a single example in the book where they use a method like this to solve a similar problem. This problem is solveable using standard given formulae and I want to know why it did not work this time.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 19:29












$begingroup$
If you want it without that symmetry condition, you would have to set $cos(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(2mx)$ which we know (in hindsight) from the solution above. It is not clear to me a priori that the odd terms $sin((2m+1)x)$ should not be present in the series at all - do you have an argument? Then, you can integrate $int_0^{pi/2} sin(2mx) sin(2nx) dx = 0$ for $m ne n$ and everything works as above. (continued)
$endgroup$
– Andreas
Jan 25 at 19:59




$begingroup$
If you want it without that symmetry condition, you would have to set $cos(x) = sum_{m=1}^infty b_m sin(2mx)$ which we know (in hindsight) from the solution above. It is not clear to me a priori that the odd terms $sin((2m+1)x)$ should not be present in the series at all - do you have an argument? Then, you can integrate $int_0^{pi/2} sin(2mx) sin(2nx) dx = 0$ for $m ne n$ and everything works as above. (continued)
$endgroup$
– Andreas
Jan 25 at 19:59












$begingroup$
(continued) The point is that in general, $int_0^{pi/2} sin(mx) sin(nx) dx $ is not zero and therefore the calculation of the coefficients does not work straightforward if you cannot exclude the odd values of m right from the start.
$endgroup$
– Andreas
Jan 25 at 19:59






$begingroup$
(continued) The point is that in general, $int_0^{pi/2} sin(mx) sin(nx) dx $ is not zero and therefore the calculation of the coefficients does not work straightforward if you cannot exclude the odd values of m right from the start.
$endgroup$
– Andreas
Jan 25 at 19:59














$begingroup$
I've been working on this problem a bit further now, I'll edit the answer and show you what I mean by applying the formulas straight on. Stand by.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 20:52




$begingroup$
I've been working on this problem a bit further now, I'll edit the answer and show you what I mean by applying the formulas straight on. Stand by.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 20:52












$begingroup$
Please see my edit now Andreas. Thanks for the time and effort you put in, I apreciate it. Oh and the answer $pi^2/64$ is indeed correct.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 21:13






$begingroup$
Please see my edit now Andreas. Thanks for the time and effort you put in, I apreciate it. Oh and the answer $pi^2/64$ is indeed correct.
$endgroup$
– Parseval
Jan 25 at 21:13




















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