The rank of a matrix of Gaussian random vectors












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If I generate a matrix $Rinmathbb{R^{ktimes p}}$, $k<p$, with i.i.d. entries $R_{i,j}simmathcal{N}(0,sigma^2)$, is there a guarantee that this matrix will have rank $k$, i.e. its columns will be independent?










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    $begingroup$


    If I generate a matrix $Rinmathbb{R^{ktimes p}}$, $k<p$, with i.i.d. entries $R_{i,j}simmathcal{N}(0,sigma^2)$, is there a guarantee that this matrix will have rank $k$, i.e. its columns will be independent?










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      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      If I generate a matrix $Rinmathbb{R^{ktimes p}}$, $k<p$, with i.i.d. entries $R_{i,j}simmathcal{N}(0,sigma^2)$, is there a guarantee that this matrix will have rank $k$, i.e. its columns will be independent?










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      $endgroup$




      If I generate a matrix $Rinmathbb{R^{ktimes p}}$, $k<p$, with i.i.d. entries $R_{i,j}simmathcal{N}(0,sigma^2)$, is there a guarantee that this matrix will have rank $k$, i.e. its columns will be independent?







      linear-algebra probability random-matrices






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      asked Jan 16 at 8:28









      UndertherainbowUndertherainbow

      307417




      307417






















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          $begingroup$

          It is not 'surely' true, but we can say that
          $$
          P(;text{rank}(R)=k ;)=1,
          $$
          i.e. $text{rank}(R)=k$ almost surely. Let $mathcal{R}=(R_{ij})inBbb R^{kp}$ denote the random vector consisting of $R_{ij}$'s. Note that $text{rank}(R)<k$ if and only if $RR^T$ is singular and $det(RR^T)=0$. Hence there is a polynomial $p:mathbb{R}^{kp}to Bbb R$ such that $$
          text{rank}(R)<kLeftrightarrow p(mathcal{R})=0.
          $$
          Thus, we have
          $$
          P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=int_{p(mathcal{R})=0}f(mathcal{R})dmathcal{R},
          $$
          where $f(mathcal{R})$ is the pdf of $mathcal{R}$. Finally observe that
          $
          {p(mathcal{R})=0}
          $
          has a Lebesgue measure zero, which can be proved by induction on the dimesion and Fubini's theorem. This implies
          $$
          P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=0
          $$
          as desired.






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            1 Answer
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            1












            $begingroup$

            It is not 'surely' true, but we can say that
            $$
            P(;text{rank}(R)=k ;)=1,
            $$
            i.e. $text{rank}(R)=k$ almost surely. Let $mathcal{R}=(R_{ij})inBbb R^{kp}$ denote the random vector consisting of $R_{ij}$'s. Note that $text{rank}(R)<k$ if and only if $RR^T$ is singular and $det(RR^T)=0$. Hence there is a polynomial $p:mathbb{R}^{kp}to Bbb R$ such that $$
            text{rank}(R)<kLeftrightarrow p(mathcal{R})=0.
            $$
            Thus, we have
            $$
            P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=int_{p(mathcal{R})=0}f(mathcal{R})dmathcal{R},
            $$
            where $f(mathcal{R})$ is the pdf of $mathcal{R}$. Finally observe that
            $
            {p(mathcal{R})=0}
            $
            has a Lebesgue measure zero, which can be proved by induction on the dimesion and Fubini's theorem. This implies
            $$
            P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=0
            $$
            as desired.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              It is not 'surely' true, but we can say that
              $$
              P(;text{rank}(R)=k ;)=1,
              $$
              i.e. $text{rank}(R)=k$ almost surely. Let $mathcal{R}=(R_{ij})inBbb R^{kp}$ denote the random vector consisting of $R_{ij}$'s. Note that $text{rank}(R)<k$ if and only if $RR^T$ is singular and $det(RR^T)=0$. Hence there is a polynomial $p:mathbb{R}^{kp}to Bbb R$ such that $$
              text{rank}(R)<kLeftrightarrow p(mathcal{R})=0.
              $$
              Thus, we have
              $$
              P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=int_{p(mathcal{R})=0}f(mathcal{R})dmathcal{R},
              $$
              where $f(mathcal{R})$ is the pdf of $mathcal{R}$. Finally observe that
              $
              {p(mathcal{R})=0}
              $
              has a Lebesgue measure zero, which can be proved by induction on the dimesion and Fubini's theorem. This implies
              $$
              P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=0
              $$
              as desired.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                It is not 'surely' true, but we can say that
                $$
                P(;text{rank}(R)=k ;)=1,
                $$
                i.e. $text{rank}(R)=k$ almost surely. Let $mathcal{R}=(R_{ij})inBbb R^{kp}$ denote the random vector consisting of $R_{ij}$'s. Note that $text{rank}(R)<k$ if and only if $RR^T$ is singular and $det(RR^T)=0$. Hence there is a polynomial $p:mathbb{R}^{kp}to Bbb R$ such that $$
                text{rank}(R)<kLeftrightarrow p(mathcal{R})=0.
                $$
                Thus, we have
                $$
                P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=int_{p(mathcal{R})=0}f(mathcal{R})dmathcal{R},
                $$
                where $f(mathcal{R})$ is the pdf of $mathcal{R}$. Finally observe that
                $
                {p(mathcal{R})=0}
                $
                has a Lebesgue measure zero, which can be proved by induction on the dimesion and Fubini's theorem. This implies
                $$
                P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=0
                $$
                as desired.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                It is not 'surely' true, but we can say that
                $$
                P(;text{rank}(R)=k ;)=1,
                $$
                i.e. $text{rank}(R)=k$ almost surely. Let $mathcal{R}=(R_{ij})inBbb R^{kp}$ denote the random vector consisting of $R_{ij}$'s. Note that $text{rank}(R)<k$ if and only if $RR^T$ is singular and $det(RR^T)=0$. Hence there is a polynomial $p:mathbb{R}^{kp}to Bbb R$ such that $$
                text{rank}(R)<kLeftrightarrow p(mathcal{R})=0.
                $$
                Thus, we have
                $$
                P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=int_{p(mathcal{R})=0}f(mathcal{R})dmathcal{R},
                $$
                where $f(mathcal{R})$ is the pdf of $mathcal{R}$. Finally observe that
                $
                {p(mathcal{R})=0}
                $
                has a Lebesgue measure zero, which can be proved by induction on the dimesion and Fubini's theorem. This implies
                $$
                P(;text{rank}(R)<k ;)=0
                $$
                as desired.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                answered Jan 16 at 8:42









                SongSong

                11.9k628




                11.9k628






























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