About pseudo-differential operators












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Let $Omega$ be an open and connect subset of $mathbb{R}^2$,we denote by $partial Omega$ its boundary the latter is supposed to be smooth ($mathcal{C}^infty)$, its outword normal vector is denoted by $n$. Let $f: Omega mapsto mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)geq alpha > 0$. Now, let $A : mathbb{H}^{1/2}(partial Omega)mapsto mathbb{H}^{-1/2}(partial Omega) $.
Such that $A(varphi)=frac{partial u }{n} $, with $u$ is the unique solution in $mathbb{H}^1(Omega)$ of



$div(fnabla u)=0$ and $u_{|partialOmega}=varphi$.



Can I say that $A$ is a pseudo-differential Operator ?










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$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Let $Omega$ be an open and connect subset of $mathbb{R}^2$,we denote by $partial Omega$ its boundary the latter is supposed to be smooth ($mathcal{C}^infty)$, its outword normal vector is denoted by $n$. Let $f: Omega mapsto mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)geq alpha > 0$. Now, let $A : mathbb{H}^{1/2}(partial Omega)mapsto mathbb{H}^{-1/2}(partial Omega) $.
    Such that $A(varphi)=frac{partial u }{n} $, with $u$ is the unique solution in $mathbb{H}^1(Omega)$ of



    $div(fnabla u)=0$ and $u_{|partialOmega}=varphi$.



    Can I say that $A$ is a pseudo-differential Operator ?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Let $Omega$ be an open and connect subset of $mathbb{R}^2$,we denote by $partial Omega$ its boundary the latter is supposed to be smooth ($mathcal{C}^infty)$, its outword normal vector is denoted by $n$. Let $f: Omega mapsto mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)geq alpha > 0$. Now, let $A : mathbb{H}^{1/2}(partial Omega)mapsto mathbb{H}^{-1/2}(partial Omega) $.
      Such that $A(varphi)=frac{partial u }{n} $, with $u$ is the unique solution in $mathbb{H}^1(Omega)$ of



      $div(fnabla u)=0$ and $u_{|partialOmega}=varphi$.



      Can I say that $A$ is a pseudo-differential Operator ?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $Omega$ be an open and connect subset of $mathbb{R}^2$,we denote by $partial Omega$ its boundary the latter is supposed to be smooth ($mathcal{C}^infty)$, its outword normal vector is denoted by $n$. Let $f: Omega mapsto mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)geq alpha > 0$. Now, let $A : mathbb{H}^{1/2}(partial Omega)mapsto mathbb{H}^{-1/2}(partial Omega) $.
      Such that $A(varphi)=frac{partial u }{n} $, with $u$ is the unique solution in $mathbb{H}^1(Omega)$ of



      $div(fnabla u)=0$ and $u_{|partialOmega}=varphi$.



      Can I say that $A$ is a pseudo-differential Operator ?







      pde regularity-theory-of-pdes elliptic-operators pseudo-differential-operators fractional-sobolev-spaces






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      edited Jan 16 at 13:07







      Mahran

















      asked Jan 14 at 20:39









      MahranMahran

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      634






















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          Finally, The answer is yes. In deed the result remains true if we remplace $div(f nabla .)$by any other second order elliptic opertor. Morover, $A$ is of order one. The proof can be found here : https://arxiv.org/pdf/1212.6785.pdf






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            $begingroup$

            Finally, The answer is yes. In deed the result remains true if we remplace $div(f nabla .)$by any other second order elliptic opertor. Morover, $A$ is of order one. The proof can be found here : https://arxiv.org/pdf/1212.6785.pdf






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              Finally, The answer is yes. In deed the result remains true if we remplace $div(f nabla .)$by any other second order elliptic opertor. Morover, $A$ is of order one. The proof can be found here : https://arxiv.org/pdf/1212.6785.pdf






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Finally, The answer is yes. In deed the result remains true if we remplace $div(f nabla .)$by any other second order elliptic opertor. Morover, $A$ is of order one. The proof can be found here : https://arxiv.org/pdf/1212.6785.pdf






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Finally, The answer is yes. In deed the result remains true if we remplace $div(f nabla .)$by any other second order elliptic opertor. Morover, $A$ is of order one. The proof can be found here : https://arxiv.org/pdf/1212.6785.pdf







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 15 at 14:48









                MahranMahran

                634




                634






























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