Why does $sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=frac{(1-q)(1-q^2)cdots(1-q^n)}{(1-q)^n}$?












4












$begingroup$


This is a known result, but I can't find a proof. Why does
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=frac{(1-q)(1-q^2)cdots(1-q^n)}{(1-q)^n}?
$$



Here $ell(sigma)$ is the length of $sigma$, equivalently, the number of inversions of $sigma$.



I know you can count the number of permutations on $n$ letters with $k$ inversions $I_n(k)$ recursively by
$$
I_n(k)=I_{n-1}(k)+I_{n-1}(k-1)+cdots+I_{n-1}(0)
$$
So you could get some polynomial
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=1+I_n(1)q+I_n(2)q^2+cdots+q^{n(n-1)/2}
$$
but there's got to be a cleaner way to get the value of the right hand side?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(1-q^k)=(1-q)(1+q+...q^{k-1})$
    $endgroup$
    – JB King
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about the inversion table of a permutation? You can consult Stanley's book, around page 35.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Theorem 1.1 of this book chapter provides a proof: ams.org/bookstore/pspdf/ulect-41-prev.pdf
    $endgroup$
    – Steve Kass
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43
















4












$begingroup$


This is a known result, but I can't find a proof. Why does
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=frac{(1-q)(1-q^2)cdots(1-q^n)}{(1-q)^n}?
$$



Here $ell(sigma)$ is the length of $sigma$, equivalently, the number of inversions of $sigma$.



I know you can count the number of permutations on $n$ letters with $k$ inversions $I_n(k)$ recursively by
$$
I_n(k)=I_{n-1}(k)+I_{n-1}(k-1)+cdots+I_{n-1}(0)
$$
So you could get some polynomial
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=1+I_n(1)q+I_n(2)q^2+cdots+q^{n(n-1)/2}
$$
but there's got to be a cleaner way to get the value of the right hand side?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(1-q^k)=(1-q)(1+q+...q^{k-1})$
    $endgroup$
    – JB King
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about the inversion table of a permutation? You can consult Stanley's book, around page 35.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Theorem 1.1 of this book chapter provides a proof: ams.org/bookstore/pspdf/ulect-41-prev.pdf
    $endgroup$
    – Steve Kass
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43














4












4








4


2



$begingroup$


This is a known result, but I can't find a proof. Why does
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=frac{(1-q)(1-q^2)cdots(1-q^n)}{(1-q)^n}?
$$



Here $ell(sigma)$ is the length of $sigma$, equivalently, the number of inversions of $sigma$.



I know you can count the number of permutations on $n$ letters with $k$ inversions $I_n(k)$ recursively by
$$
I_n(k)=I_{n-1}(k)+I_{n-1}(k-1)+cdots+I_{n-1}(0)
$$
So you could get some polynomial
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=1+I_n(1)q+I_n(2)q^2+cdots+q^{n(n-1)/2}
$$
but there's got to be a cleaner way to get the value of the right hand side?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




This is a known result, but I can't find a proof. Why does
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=frac{(1-q)(1-q^2)cdots(1-q^n)}{(1-q)^n}?
$$



Here $ell(sigma)$ is the length of $sigma$, equivalently, the number of inversions of $sigma$.



I know you can count the number of permutations on $n$ letters with $k$ inversions $I_n(k)$ recursively by
$$
I_n(k)=I_{n-1}(k)+I_{n-1}(k-1)+cdots+I_{n-1}(0)
$$
So you could get some polynomial
$$
sum_{sigmain S_n}q^{ell(sigma)}=1+I_n(1)q+I_n(2)q^2+cdots+q^{n(n-1)/2}
$$
but there's got to be a cleaner way to get the value of the right hand side?







abstract-algebra combinatorics permutations symmetric-groups






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 6 '15 at 0:37







Adelaide Dokras

















asked Aug 6 '15 at 0:31









Adelaide DokrasAdelaide Dokras

681412




681412








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(1-q^k)=(1-q)(1+q+...q^{k-1})$
    $endgroup$
    – JB King
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about the inversion table of a permutation? You can consult Stanley's book, around page 35.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Theorem 1.1 of this book chapter provides a proof: ams.org/bookstore/pspdf/ulect-41-prev.pdf
    $endgroup$
    – Steve Kass
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(1-q^k)=(1-q)(1+q+...q^{k-1})$
    $endgroup$
    – JB King
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about the inversion table of a permutation? You can consult Stanley's book, around page 35.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Theorem 1.1 of this book chapter provides a proof: ams.org/bookstore/pspdf/ulect-41-prev.pdf
    $endgroup$
    – Steve Kass
    Aug 6 '15 at 0:43








1




1




$begingroup$
Hint: $(1-q^k)=(1-q)(1+q+...q^{k-1})$
$endgroup$
– JB King
Aug 6 '15 at 0:39




$begingroup$
Hint: $(1-q^k)=(1-q)(1+q+...q^{k-1})$
$endgroup$
– JB King
Aug 6 '15 at 0:39




1




1




$begingroup$
Do you know about the inversion table of a permutation? You can consult Stanley's book, around page 35.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff
Aug 6 '15 at 0:43




$begingroup$
Do you know about the inversion table of a permutation? You can consult Stanley's book, around page 35.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff
Aug 6 '15 at 0:43




1




1




$begingroup$
Theorem 1.1 of this book chapter provides a proof: ams.org/bookstore/pspdf/ulect-41-prev.pdf
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Aug 6 '15 at 0:43




$begingroup$
Theorem 1.1 of this book chapter provides a proof: ams.org/bookstore/pspdf/ulect-41-prev.pdf
$endgroup$
– Steve Kass
Aug 6 '15 at 0:43










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Let $P_n(q)$ be the LHS polynomial and $Q_n(q)$ be the RHS polynomial. Clearly $P_1(q) = Q_1(q)$, and $Q_n(q)$ satisfies the recurrence $$Q_{n+1}(q) = frac{1-q^{n+1}}{1-q} Q_n(q) = (1+q+q^2+cdots+q^n)Q_n(q).$$



The question that remains is why $P_n$ satisfies the same recurrence. To see this, define $s_i in S_n$ by the transposition $s_i = (i quad i+1)$, defined for all (large enough) $n$ via the natural embeddings $S_n hookrightarrow S_{n+1}$. Recall that for $sigma in S_n$, $ell(sigma)$ is equivalently defined as the length of a minimal representative decomposition of $sigma$ as a product of $s_i$'s.



Claim: The set $$C_{n+1} := {1, s_n, s_{n-1}s_{n}, ldots, s_1s_2cdots s_{n}}$$ defines a complete set of left coset representatives of $S_n subset S_{n+1}$. That is, the multiplication map $$C_{n+1} times S_n to S_{n+1}$$ defines a bijection.



Moreover, I claim that for $omega in C_{n+1}$ and $sigma in S_n$, we have $ell(omegasigma) = ell(omega)+ell(sigma)$. Prove these facts, and use this to complete the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Heh, I think we've both seen it from the same source.
    $endgroup$
    – BWW
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That wouldn't be surprising! ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Dustan Levenstein
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:48



















5












$begingroup$

Consider a permutation from $S_n.$ First make a choice where on the available $n$ positions you place the value one. All future elements to the left of this value will contribute an inversion. That gives the generating function $$q^{n-1}+q^{n-2}+cdots+1.$$ Having positioned one we position two and once again we have all remaining elements to the left of two will contribute an inversion. This gives the term $$q^{n-2}+q^{n-3}+cdots+1$$ (inversions with one has been counted if indeed it participates). Continuing until we place the $n$ element we obtain the product $$prod_{k=0}^{n-1}left(q^{k}+q^{k-1}+cdots+1right)
= prod_{k=0}^{n-1} frac{1-q^{k+1}}{1-q} = frac{(1-q^n)(1-q^{n-1})cdots (1-q)}{(1-q)^n}.$$



Here we have classified the inversions $(a,b)$ by the right value $b$ and the term for $k=0$ is one which is correct since the element $n$ does not participate in any inversions that haven't been counted before. In general the element $b$ can participate in at most $n-b$ inversions that haven't been counted before.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is the proof I had in mind, using inversion tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:51











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2 Answers
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active

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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

Let $P_n(q)$ be the LHS polynomial and $Q_n(q)$ be the RHS polynomial. Clearly $P_1(q) = Q_1(q)$, and $Q_n(q)$ satisfies the recurrence $$Q_{n+1}(q) = frac{1-q^{n+1}}{1-q} Q_n(q) = (1+q+q^2+cdots+q^n)Q_n(q).$$



The question that remains is why $P_n$ satisfies the same recurrence. To see this, define $s_i in S_n$ by the transposition $s_i = (i quad i+1)$, defined for all (large enough) $n$ via the natural embeddings $S_n hookrightarrow S_{n+1}$. Recall that for $sigma in S_n$, $ell(sigma)$ is equivalently defined as the length of a minimal representative decomposition of $sigma$ as a product of $s_i$'s.



Claim: The set $$C_{n+1} := {1, s_n, s_{n-1}s_{n}, ldots, s_1s_2cdots s_{n}}$$ defines a complete set of left coset representatives of $S_n subset S_{n+1}$. That is, the multiplication map $$C_{n+1} times S_n to S_{n+1}$$ defines a bijection.



Moreover, I claim that for $omega in C_{n+1}$ and $sigma in S_n$, we have $ell(omegasigma) = ell(omega)+ell(sigma)$. Prove these facts, and use this to complete the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Heh, I think we've both seen it from the same source.
    $endgroup$
    – BWW
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That wouldn't be surprising! ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Dustan Levenstein
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:48
















4












$begingroup$

Let $P_n(q)$ be the LHS polynomial and $Q_n(q)$ be the RHS polynomial. Clearly $P_1(q) = Q_1(q)$, and $Q_n(q)$ satisfies the recurrence $$Q_{n+1}(q) = frac{1-q^{n+1}}{1-q} Q_n(q) = (1+q+q^2+cdots+q^n)Q_n(q).$$



The question that remains is why $P_n$ satisfies the same recurrence. To see this, define $s_i in S_n$ by the transposition $s_i = (i quad i+1)$, defined for all (large enough) $n$ via the natural embeddings $S_n hookrightarrow S_{n+1}$. Recall that for $sigma in S_n$, $ell(sigma)$ is equivalently defined as the length of a minimal representative decomposition of $sigma$ as a product of $s_i$'s.



Claim: The set $$C_{n+1} := {1, s_n, s_{n-1}s_{n}, ldots, s_1s_2cdots s_{n}}$$ defines a complete set of left coset representatives of $S_n subset S_{n+1}$. That is, the multiplication map $$C_{n+1} times S_n to S_{n+1}$$ defines a bijection.



Moreover, I claim that for $omega in C_{n+1}$ and $sigma in S_n$, we have $ell(omegasigma) = ell(omega)+ell(sigma)$. Prove these facts, and use this to complete the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Heh, I think we've both seen it from the same source.
    $endgroup$
    – BWW
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That wouldn't be surprising! ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Dustan Levenstein
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:48














4












4








4





$begingroup$

Let $P_n(q)$ be the LHS polynomial and $Q_n(q)$ be the RHS polynomial. Clearly $P_1(q) = Q_1(q)$, and $Q_n(q)$ satisfies the recurrence $$Q_{n+1}(q) = frac{1-q^{n+1}}{1-q} Q_n(q) = (1+q+q^2+cdots+q^n)Q_n(q).$$



The question that remains is why $P_n$ satisfies the same recurrence. To see this, define $s_i in S_n$ by the transposition $s_i = (i quad i+1)$, defined for all (large enough) $n$ via the natural embeddings $S_n hookrightarrow S_{n+1}$. Recall that for $sigma in S_n$, $ell(sigma)$ is equivalently defined as the length of a minimal representative decomposition of $sigma$ as a product of $s_i$'s.



Claim: The set $$C_{n+1} := {1, s_n, s_{n-1}s_{n}, ldots, s_1s_2cdots s_{n}}$$ defines a complete set of left coset representatives of $S_n subset S_{n+1}$. That is, the multiplication map $$C_{n+1} times S_n to S_{n+1}$$ defines a bijection.



Moreover, I claim that for $omega in C_{n+1}$ and $sigma in S_n$, we have $ell(omegasigma) = ell(omega)+ell(sigma)$. Prove these facts, and use this to complete the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Let $P_n(q)$ be the LHS polynomial and $Q_n(q)$ be the RHS polynomial. Clearly $P_1(q) = Q_1(q)$, and $Q_n(q)$ satisfies the recurrence $$Q_{n+1}(q) = frac{1-q^{n+1}}{1-q} Q_n(q) = (1+q+q^2+cdots+q^n)Q_n(q).$$



The question that remains is why $P_n$ satisfies the same recurrence. To see this, define $s_i in S_n$ by the transposition $s_i = (i quad i+1)$, defined for all (large enough) $n$ via the natural embeddings $S_n hookrightarrow S_{n+1}$. Recall that for $sigma in S_n$, $ell(sigma)$ is equivalently defined as the length of a minimal representative decomposition of $sigma$ as a product of $s_i$'s.



Claim: The set $$C_{n+1} := {1, s_n, s_{n-1}s_{n}, ldots, s_1s_2cdots s_{n}}$$ defines a complete set of left coset representatives of $S_n subset S_{n+1}$. That is, the multiplication map $$C_{n+1} times S_n to S_{n+1}$$ defines a bijection.



Moreover, I claim that for $omega in C_{n+1}$ and $sigma in S_n$, we have $ell(omegasigma) = ell(omega)+ell(sigma)$. Prove these facts, and use this to complete the proof.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 6 '15 at 1:42

























answered Aug 6 '15 at 0:45









Dustan LevensteinDustan Levenstein

10k11646




10k11646








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Heh, I think we've both seen it from the same source.
    $endgroup$
    – BWW
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That wouldn't be surprising! ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Dustan Levenstein
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:48














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Heh, I think we've both seen it from the same source.
    $endgroup$
    – BWW
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That wouldn't be surprising! ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Dustan Levenstein
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:48








1




1




$begingroup$
Heh, I think we've both seen it from the same source.
$endgroup$
– BWW
Aug 6 '15 at 1:46




$begingroup$
Heh, I think we've both seen it from the same source.
$endgroup$
– BWW
Aug 6 '15 at 1:46




1




1




$begingroup$
That wouldn't be surprising! ;)
$endgroup$
– Dustan Levenstein
Aug 6 '15 at 1:48




$begingroup$
That wouldn't be surprising! ;)
$endgroup$
– Dustan Levenstein
Aug 6 '15 at 1:48











5












$begingroup$

Consider a permutation from $S_n.$ First make a choice where on the available $n$ positions you place the value one. All future elements to the left of this value will contribute an inversion. That gives the generating function $$q^{n-1}+q^{n-2}+cdots+1.$$ Having positioned one we position two and once again we have all remaining elements to the left of two will contribute an inversion. This gives the term $$q^{n-2}+q^{n-3}+cdots+1$$ (inversions with one has been counted if indeed it participates). Continuing until we place the $n$ element we obtain the product $$prod_{k=0}^{n-1}left(q^{k}+q^{k-1}+cdots+1right)
= prod_{k=0}^{n-1} frac{1-q^{k+1}}{1-q} = frac{(1-q^n)(1-q^{n-1})cdots (1-q)}{(1-q)^n}.$$



Here we have classified the inversions $(a,b)$ by the right value $b$ and the term for $k=0$ is one which is correct since the element $n$ does not participate in any inversions that haven't been counted before. In general the element $b$ can participate in at most $n-b$ inversions that haven't been counted before.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is the proof I had in mind, using inversion tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:51
















5












$begingroup$

Consider a permutation from $S_n.$ First make a choice where on the available $n$ positions you place the value one. All future elements to the left of this value will contribute an inversion. That gives the generating function $$q^{n-1}+q^{n-2}+cdots+1.$$ Having positioned one we position two and once again we have all remaining elements to the left of two will contribute an inversion. This gives the term $$q^{n-2}+q^{n-3}+cdots+1$$ (inversions with one has been counted if indeed it participates). Continuing until we place the $n$ element we obtain the product $$prod_{k=0}^{n-1}left(q^{k}+q^{k-1}+cdots+1right)
= prod_{k=0}^{n-1} frac{1-q^{k+1}}{1-q} = frac{(1-q^n)(1-q^{n-1})cdots (1-q)}{(1-q)^n}.$$



Here we have classified the inversions $(a,b)$ by the right value $b$ and the term for $k=0$ is one which is correct since the element $n$ does not participate in any inversions that haven't been counted before. In general the element $b$ can participate in at most $n-b$ inversions that haven't been counted before.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is the proof I had in mind, using inversion tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:51














5












5








5





$begingroup$

Consider a permutation from $S_n.$ First make a choice where on the available $n$ positions you place the value one. All future elements to the left of this value will contribute an inversion. That gives the generating function $$q^{n-1}+q^{n-2}+cdots+1.$$ Having positioned one we position two and once again we have all remaining elements to the left of two will contribute an inversion. This gives the term $$q^{n-2}+q^{n-3}+cdots+1$$ (inversions with one has been counted if indeed it participates). Continuing until we place the $n$ element we obtain the product $$prod_{k=0}^{n-1}left(q^{k}+q^{k-1}+cdots+1right)
= prod_{k=0}^{n-1} frac{1-q^{k+1}}{1-q} = frac{(1-q^n)(1-q^{n-1})cdots (1-q)}{(1-q)^n}.$$



Here we have classified the inversions $(a,b)$ by the right value $b$ and the term for $k=0$ is one which is correct since the element $n$ does not participate in any inversions that haven't been counted before. In general the element $b$ can participate in at most $n-b$ inversions that haven't been counted before.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Consider a permutation from $S_n.$ First make a choice where on the available $n$ positions you place the value one. All future elements to the left of this value will contribute an inversion. That gives the generating function $$q^{n-1}+q^{n-2}+cdots+1.$$ Having positioned one we position two and once again we have all remaining elements to the left of two will contribute an inversion. This gives the term $$q^{n-2}+q^{n-3}+cdots+1$$ (inversions with one has been counted if indeed it participates). Continuing until we place the $n$ element we obtain the product $$prod_{k=0}^{n-1}left(q^{k}+q^{k-1}+cdots+1right)
= prod_{k=0}^{n-1} frac{1-q^{k+1}}{1-q} = frac{(1-q^n)(1-q^{n-1})cdots (1-q)}{(1-q)^n}.$$



Here we have classified the inversions $(a,b)$ by the right value $b$ and the term for $k=0$ is one which is correct since the element $n$ does not participate in any inversions that haven't been counted before. In general the element $b$ can participate in at most $n-b$ inversions that haven't been counted before.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 15 at 20:59









darij grinberg

10.8k33062




10.8k33062










answered Aug 6 '15 at 1:03









Marko RiedelMarko Riedel

40.1k339108




40.1k339108












  • $begingroup$
    This is the proof I had in mind, using inversion tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:51


















  • $begingroup$
    This is the proof I had in mind, using inversion tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Aug 6 '15 at 1:51
















$begingroup$
This is the proof I had in mind, using inversion tables.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff
Aug 6 '15 at 1:51




$begingroup$
This is the proof I had in mind, using inversion tables.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff
Aug 6 '15 at 1:51


















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