If $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ is continuous, and $f(mathbb{Q})subsetmathbb{N}$, then is $f$ unbounded,...












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Suppose $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ is a continuous function such that $ f(mathbb{Q})subsetmathbb{N}$. What can be said about $f$? Is it (1) unbounded, (2) constant, or (3) non-constant bounded?




I think it should be constant, as $mathbb{Q}$ is dense in $mathbb{R}$.



Kindly help! Thanks & Regards










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    $begingroup$
    You are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 22 at 18:54






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    $begingroup$
    Yes. By continuity, $f(mathbb{R})=f(overline{mathbb{Q}})subseteqoverline{f(mathbb{Q})}=mathbb{N}$. Since $f(mathbb{Q})$ is a non-empty connected subset of $mathbb{N}$, it is a singleton. Therefore $f$ is constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Jan 22 at 19:22


















0












$begingroup$



Suppose $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ is a continuous function such that $ f(mathbb{Q})subsetmathbb{N}$. What can be said about $f$? Is it (1) unbounded, (2) constant, or (3) non-constant bounded?




I think it should be constant, as $mathbb{Q}$ is dense in $mathbb{R}$.



Kindly help! Thanks & Regards










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    You are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 22 at 18:54






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. By continuity, $f(mathbb{R})=f(overline{mathbb{Q}})subseteqoverline{f(mathbb{Q})}=mathbb{N}$. Since $f(mathbb{Q})$ is a non-empty connected subset of $mathbb{N}$, it is a singleton. Therefore $f$ is constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Jan 22 at 19:22
















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0





$begingroup$



Suppose $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ is a continuous function such that $ f(mathbb{Q})subsetmathbb{N}$. What can be said about $f$? Is it (1) unbounded, (2) constant, or (3) non-constant bounded?




I think it should be constant, as $mathbb{Q}$ is dense in $mathbb{R}$.



Kindly help! Thanks & Regards










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Suppose $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ is a continuous function such that $ f(mathbb{Q})subsetmathbb{N}$. What can be said about $f$? Is it (1) unbounded, (2) constant, or (3) non-constant bounded?




I think it should be constant, as $mathbb{Q}$ is dense in $mathbb{R}$.



Kindly help! Thanks & Regards







real-analysis functions






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edited Jan 22 at 19:17









Blue

48.6k870156




48.6k870156










asked Jan 22 at 18:51









Devendra Singh RanaDevendra Singh Rana

7751416




7751416








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    You are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 22 at 18:54






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. By continuity, $f(mathbb{R})=f(overline{mathbb{Q}})subseteqoverline{f(mathbb{Q})}=mathbb{N}$. Since $f(mathbb{Q})$ is a non-empty connected subset of $mathbb{N}$, it is a singleton. Therefore $f$ is constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Jan 22 at 19:22
















  • 3




    $begingroup$
    You are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 22 at 18:54






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. By continuity, $f(mathbb{R})=f(overline{mathbb{Q}})subseteqoverline{f(mathbb{Q})}=mathbb{N}$. Since $f(mathbb{Q})$ is a non-empty connected subset of $mathbb{N}$, it is a singleton. Therefore $f$ is constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Jan 22 at 19:22










3




3




$begingroup$
You are right .
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 22 at 18:54




$begingroup$
You are right .
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 22 at 18:54




1




1




$begingroup$
Yes. By continuity, $f(mathbb{R})=f(overline{mathbb{Q}})subseteqoverline{f(mathbb{Q})}=mathbb{N}$. Since $f(mathbb{Q})$ is a non-empty connected subset of $mathbb{N}$, it is a singleton. Therefore $f$ is constant.
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Jan 22 at 19:22






$begingroup$
Yes. By continuity, $f(mathbb{R})=f(overline{mathbb{Q}})subseteqoverline{f(mathbb{Q})}=mathbb{N}$. Since $f(mathbb{Q})$ is a non-empty connected subset of $mathbb{N}$, it is a singleton. Therefore $f$ is constant.
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Jan 22 at 19:22












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Yes, $f$ must be a constant. Suppose not. Pick $q_1, q_2 in mathbb{Q}$ such that $f(q_1) > f(q_2)$. Without loss of generality, assume $q_1 < q_2$. Pick any noninteger $y$ between $f(q_1)$ and $f(q_2)$. Then by intermediate value theorem, there exists $x in (q_1, q_2)$ such that $f(x) = y$. Any rational number sufficiently close to $x$ should not take integer value, a contradiction.






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    $begingroup$

    Yes, $f$ must be a constant. Suppose not. Pick $q_1, q_2 in mathbb{Q}$ such that $f(q_1) > f(q_2)$. Without loss of generality, assume $q_1 < q_2$. Pick any noninteger $y$ between $f(q_1)$ and $f(q_2)$. Then by intermediate value theorem, there exists $x in (q_1, q_2)$ such that $f(x) = y$. Any rational number sufficiently close to $x$ should not take integer value, a contradiction.






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      1












      $begingroup$

      Yes, $f$ must be a constant. Suppose not. Pick $q_1, q_2 in mathbb{Q}$ such that $f(q_1) > f(q_2)$. Without loss of generality, assume $q_1 < q_2$. Pick any noninteger $y$ between $f(q_1)$ and $f(q_2)$. Then by intermediate value theorem, there exists $x in (q_1, q_2)$ such that $f(x) = y$. Any rational number sufficiently close to $x$ should not take integer value, a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        $begingroup$

        Yes, $f$ must be a constant. Suppose not. Pick $q_1, q_2 in mathbb{Q}$ such that $f(q_1) > f(q_2)$. Without loss of generality, assume $q_1 < q_2$. Pick any noninteger $y$ between $f(q_1)$ and $f(q_2)$. Then by intermediate value theorem, there exists $x in (q_1, q_2)$ such that $f(x) = y$. Any rational number sufficiently close to $x$ should not take integer value, a contradiction.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes, $f$ must be a constant. Suppose not. Pick $q_1, q_2 in mathbb{Q}$ such that $f(q_1) > f(q_2)$. Without loss of generality, assume $q_1 < q_2$. Pick any noninteger $y$ between $f(q_1)$ and $f(q_2)$. Then by intermediate value theorem, there exists $x in (q_1, q_2)$ such that $f(x) = y$. Any rational number sufficiently close to $x$ should not take integer value, a contradiction.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 22 at 19:08









        user295959user295959

        664310




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