Additivity of Value at Risk












1












$begingroup$


I'm struggling with the following exercise:




Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$




My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.



Thank you for your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Jan 22 at 19:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Raskolnikov
    Jan 22 at 23:10


















1












$begingroup$


I'm struggling with the following exercise:




Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$




My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.



Thank you for your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Jan 22 at 19:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Raskolnikov
    Jan 22 at 23:10
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


I'm struggling with the following exercise:




Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$




My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.



Thank you for your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm struggling with the following exercise:




Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$




My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.



Thank you for your help.







probability-distributions random-variables finance






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edited Jan 22 at 19:14









gt6989b

34.5k22456




34.5k22456










asked Jan 22 at 19:05









ToxxiqqToxxiqq

173




173












  • $begingroup$
    So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Jan 22 at 19:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Raskolnikov
    Jan 22 at 23:10




















  • $begingroup$
    So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Jan 22 at 19:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Raskolnikov
    Jan 22 at 23:10


















$begingroup$
So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17




$begingroup$
So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17




1




1




$begingroup$
If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10






$begingroup$
If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Here's a hint on top of my comment:



$$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$






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    1












    $begingroup$

    Here's a hint on top of my comment:



    $$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Here's a hint on top of my comment:



      $$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Here's a hint on top of my comment:



        $$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Here's a hint on top of my comment:



        $$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 23 at 10:53









        RaskolnikovRaskolnikov

        12.6k23571




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