Additivity of Value at Risk
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I'm struggling with the following exercise:
Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$
My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.
Thank you for your help.
probability-distributions random-variables finance
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm struggling with the following exercise:
Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$
My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.
Thank you for your help.
probability-distributions random-variables finance
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So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17
1
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If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm struggling with the following exercise:
Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$
My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.
Thank you for your help.
probability-distributions random-variables finance
$endgroup$
I'm struggling with the following exercise:
Let $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and $X,Y$ be two real-valued random varaibles such that their corresponding cumulative distribution functions $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing. Further, we assume that $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$, where the random variable $U$ is uniformly distributed on $(0,1)$. Show that in this case
$$
VaR_lambda(X+Y)=VaR_lambda(X)+VaR_lambda(Y)
$$
My idea: Since $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, there exist continuous inverse functions $F_X^{-1}$ and $F_Y^{-1}$ of $F_X$ and $F_Y$ such that $VaR_lambda(X)=F^{-1}_X(lambda)$ and $VaR_lambda(Y)=F^{-1}_Y(lambda)$. My main problem is that I don't really know what this $(X,Y)sim(q_X^-(U),q_Y^-(U))$ actually means (where $q_X^-(lambda)$ is the lower $lambda$-quantile) or how to deal with this. One thing I saw is that for a uniformly distributed $U$ on $(0,1)$, we have that $F(X)=mathbb{P}(Uleq F(X))=mathbb{P}(q(U)leq x)$. I'm not sure if this is correct in this setting or helpful, but these are the only approaches I have so far.
Thank you for your help.
probability-distributions random-variables finance
probability-distributions random-variables finance
edited Jan 22 at 19:14
gt6989b
34.5k22456
34.5k22456
asked Jan 22 at 19:05
ToxxiqqToxxiqq
173
173
$begingroup$
So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17
1
$begingroup$
If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17
1
$begingroup$
If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10
$begingroup$
So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17
$begingroup$
So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17
1
1
$begingroup$
If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10
$begingroup$
If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Here's a hint on top of my comment:
$$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$
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add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Here's a hint on top of my comment:
$$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a hint on top of my comment:
$$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a hint on top of my comment:
$$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$
$endgroup$
Here's a hint on top of my comment:
$$X+Y sim q_X^-(U) + q_Y^-(U) = (q_X^- + q_Y^-)(U) ; .$$
answered Jan 23 at 10:53
RaskolnikovRaskolnikov
12.6k23571
12.6k23571
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
So, readers are supposed to guess what your notation means?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Jan 22 at 19:17
1
$begingroup$
If the functions $F_X, F_Y$ are continuous and strictly monotonically increasing, $q^-_X=F^{-1}_X$ and likewise for $Y$.
$endgroup$
– Raskolnikov
Jan 22 at 23:10