matrix: solve for square matrix with 0 diagonal












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I have an equation of $XI = Y$, where I know $I$ (vector of 1s) and $Y$ (vector of positive integers). I want to find positive square matrix $X$, I also know that the diagonal entries of $X$ are all 0.



So example is $X$ is 3x3, $I$ is 3x1 and $Y$ is 3x1.



How can I solve this? There could be multiple solutions.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I have an equation of $XI = Y$, where I know $I$ (vector of 1s) and $Y$ (vector of positive integers). I want to find positive square matrix $X$, I also know that the diagonal entries of $X$ are all 0.



    So example is $X$ is 3x3, $I$ is 3x1 and $Y$ is 3x1.



    How can I solve this? There could be multiple solutions.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I have an equation of $XI = Y$, where I know $I$ (vector of 1s) and $Y$ (vector of positive integers). I want to find positive square matrix $X$, I also know that the diagonal entries of $X$ are all 0.



      So example is $X$ is 3x3, $I$ is 3x1 and $Y$ is 3x1.



      How can I solve this? There could be multiple solutions.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have an equation of $XI = Y$, where I know $I$ (vector of 1s) and $Y$ (vector of positive integers). I want to find positive square matrix $X$, I also know that the diagonal entries of $X$ are all 0.



      So example is $X$ is 3x3, $I$ is 3x1 and $Y$ is 3x1.



      How can I solve this? There could be multiple solutions.







      matrix-calculus






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 24 at 11:41









      Dirk NachbarDirk Nachbar

      1012




      1012






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Let $X=(x_{jk})_{j,k=1}^3$ and $Y=(l,m,n)^T$ with $l,m,n in mathbb N.$ Since $x_{11}=x_{22}=x_{33}=0$, we get from $XI=Y$ the equations



          $x_{12}+x_{13}=l, x_{21}+x_{23}=m$ and $x_{31}+x_{32}=n.$



          Can you proceed ?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            The Moore-Penrose inverse can be used to write the general solution to any linear equation, i.e.
            $$(XA = Y) implies X = YA^+ + C - CAA^+$$ where $C$ is an arbitrary matrix.



            In the current problem the matrices $(A,Y)$ are replaced by the vectors $(1,y)$, yielding
            $$eqalign{
            X &= y1^+ + C - C11^+ cr
            }$$

            For a real vector, the MP-inverse can be written in terms of the transpose
            $$a^+ = frac{a^T}{a^Ta}$$
            so we can write
            $$1^+ = tfrac{1}{3}1^T$$
            Extract the $k^{th}$ diagonal element of the matrix by multiplying from the left with $e_k^T$ and from the right with $e_k$, and set it to zero.
            $$eqalign{
            X_{kk} &= e_k^TXe_k cr
            0 &= tfrac{1}{3}y_k + C_{kk} - tfrac{1}{3}e_k^TC1 cr
            0 &= y_k + 3C_{kk} - e_k^TC1 cr
            }$$

            There are more unknowns than equations, so let's constrain the matrix to $C={rm Diag}(c).$
            $$eqalign{
            0 &= y_k + 3c_{k} - e_k^Tc cr
            c_k &= -tfrac{1}{2}y_k &implies
            C &= -tfrac{1}{2}{rm Diag}(y) cr
            }$$

            Putting it all together, and generalizing the dimensions from $(3to n)$ yields
            $$eqalign{
            X &= tfrac{1}{n}y1^T - tfrac{1}{n-1}{rm Diag}(y) + tfrac{1}{n(n-1)}{rm Diag}(y)11^T cr
            }$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

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              active

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              3












              $begingroup$

              Let $X=(x_{jk})_{j,k=1}^3$ and $Y=(l,m,n)^T$ with $l,m,n in mathbb N.$ Since $x_{11}=x_{22}=x_{33}=0$, we get from $XI=Y$ the equations



              $x_{12}+x_{13}=l, x_{21}+x_{23}=m$ and $x_{31}+x_{32}=n.$



              Can you proceed ?






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                Let $X=(x_{jk})_{j,k=1}^3$ and $Y=(l,m,n)^T$ with $l,m,n in mathbb N.$ Since $x_{11}=x_{22}=x_{33}=0$, we get from $XI=Y$ the equations



                $x_{12}+x_{13}=l, x_{21}+x_{23}=m$ and $x_{31}+x_{32}=n.$



                Can you proceed ?






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  Let $X=(x_{jk})_{j,k=1}^3$ and $Y=(l,m,n)^T$ with $l,m,n in mathbb N.$ Since $x_{11}=x_{22}=x_{33}=0$, we get from $XI=Y$ the equations



                  $x_{12}+x_{13}=l, x_{21}+x_{23}=m$ and $x_{31}+x_{32}=n.$



                  Can you proceed ?






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Let $X=(x_{jk})_{j,k=1}^3$ and $Y=(l,m,n)^T$ with $l,m,n in mathbb N.$ Since $x_{11}=x_{22}=x_{33}=0$, we get from $XI=Y$ the equations



                  $x_{12}+x_{13}=l, x_{21}+x_{23}=m$ and $x_{31}+x_{32}=n.$



                  Can you proceed ?







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 24 at 12:08









                  FredFred

                  47.7k1849




                  47.7k1849























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      The Moore-Penrose inverse can be used to write the general solution to any linear equation, i.e.
                      $$(XA = Y) implies X = YA^+ + C - CAA^+$$ where $C$ is an arbitrary matrix.



                      In the current problem the matrices $(A,Y)$ are replaced by the vectors $(1,y)$, yielding
                      $$eqalign{
                      X &= y1^+ + C - C11^+ cr
                      }$$

                      For a real vector, the MP-inverse can be written in terms of the transpose
                      $$a^+ = frac{a^T}{a^Ta}$$
                      so we can write
                      $$1^+ = tfrac{1}{3}1^T$$
                      Extract the $k^{th}$ diagonal element of the matrix by multiplying from the left with $e_k^T$ and from the right with $e_k$, and set it to zero.
                      $$eqalign{
                      X_{kk} &= e_k^TXe_k cr
                      0 &= tfrac{1}{3}y_k + C_{kk} - tfrac{1}{3}e_k^TC1 cr
                      0 &= y_k + 3C_{kk} - e_k^TC1 cr
                      }$$

                      There are more unknowns than equations, so let's constrain the matrix to $C={rm Diag}(c).$
                      $$eqalign{
                      0 &= y_k + 3c_{k} - e_k^Tc cr
                      c_k &= -tfrac{1}{2}y_k &implies
                      C &= -tfrac{1}{2}{rm Diag}(y) cr
                      }$$

                      Putting it all together, and generalizing the dimensions from $(3to n)$ yields
                      $$eqalign{
                      X &= tfrac{1}{n}y1^T - tfrac{1}{n-1}{rm Diag}(y) + tfrac{1}{n(n-1)}{rm Diag}(y)11^T cr
                      }$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$


















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        The Moore-Penrose inverse can be used to write the general solution to any linear equation, i.e.
                        $$(XA = Y) implies X = YA^+ + C - CAA^+$$ where $C$ is an arbitrary matrix.



                        In the current problem the matrices $(A,Y)$ are replaced by the vectors $(1,y)$, yielding
                        $$eqalign{
                        X &= y1^+ + C - C11^+ cr
                        }$$

                        For a real vector, the MP-inverse can be written in terms of the transpose
                        $$a^+ = frac{a^T}{a^Ta}$$
                        so we can write
                        $$1^+ = tfrac{1}{3}1^T$$
                        Extract the $k^{th}$ diagonal element of the matrix by multiplying from the left with $e_k^T$ and from the right with $e_k$, and set it to zero.
                        $$eqalign{
                        X_{kk} &= e_k^TXe_k cr
                        0 &= tfrac{1}{3}y_k + C_{kk} - tfrac{1}{3}e_k^TC1 cr
                        0 &= y_k + 3C_{kk} - e_k^TC1 cr
                        }$$

                        There are more unknowns than equations, so let's constrain the matrix to $C={rm Diag}(c).$
                        $$eqalign{
                        0 &= y_k + 3c_{k} - e_k^Tc cr
                        c_k &= -tfrac{1}{2}y_k &implies
                        C &= -tfrac{1}{2}{rm Diag}(y) cr
                        }$$

                        Putting it all together, and generalizing the dimensions from $(3to n)$ yields
                        $$eqalign{
                        X &= tfrac{1}{n}y1^T - tfrac{1}{n-1}{rm Diag}(y) + tfrac{1}{n(n-1)}{rm Diag}(y)11^T cr
                        }$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$
















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          The Moore-Penrose inverse can be used to write the general solution to any linear equation, i.e.
                          $$(XA = Y) implies X = YA^+ + C - CAA^+$$ where $C$ is an arbitrary matrix.



                          In the current problem the matrices $(A,Y)$ are replaced by the vectors $(1,y)$, yielding
                          $$eqalign{
                          X &= y1^+ + C - C11^+ cr
                          }$$

                          For a real vector, the MP-inverse can be written in terms of the transpose
                          $$a^+ = frac{a^T}{a^Ta}$$
                          so we can write
                          $$1^+ = tfrac{1}{3}1^T$$
                          Extract the $k^{th}$ diagonal element of the matrix by multiplying from the left with $e_k^T$ and from the right with $e_k$, and set it to zero.
                          $$eqalign{
                          X_{kk} &= e_k^TXe_k cr
                          0 &= tfrac{1}{3}y_k + C_{kk} - tfrac{1}{3}e_k^TC1 cr
                          0 &= y_k + 3C_{kk} - e_k^TC1 cr
                          }$$

                          There are more unknowns than equations, so let's constrain the matrix to $C={rm Diag}(c).$
                          $$eqalign{
                          0 &= y_k + 3c_{k} - e_k^Tc cr
                          c_k &= -tfrac{1}{2}y_k &implies
                          C &= -tfrac{1}{2}{rm Diag}(y) cr
                          }$$

                          Putting it all together, and generalizing the dimensions from $(3to n)$ yields
                          $$eqalign{
                          X &= tfrac{1}{n}y1^T - tfrac{1}{n-1}{rm Diag}(y) + tfrac{1}{n(n-1)}{rm Diag}(y)11^T cr
                          }$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$



                          The Moore-Penrose inverse can be used to write the general solution to any linear equation, i.e.
                          $$(XA = Y) implies X = YA^+ + C - CAA^+$$ where $C$ is an arbitrary matrix.



                          In the current problem the matrices $(A,Y)$ are replaced by the vectors $(1,y)$, yielding
                          $$eqalign{
                          X &= y1^+ + C - C11^+ cr
                          }$$

                          For a real vector, the MP-inverse can be written in terms of the transpose
                          $$a^+ = frac{a^T}{a^Ta}$$
                          so we can write
                          $$1^+ = tfrac{1}{3}1^T$$
                          Extract the $k^{th}$ diagonal element of the matrix by multiplying from the left with $e_k^T$ and from the right with $e_k$, and set it to zero.
                          $$eqalign{
                          X_{kk} &= e_k^TXe_k cr
                          0 &= tfrac{1}{3}y_k + C_{kk} - tfrac{1}{3}e_k^TC1 cr
                          0 &= y_k + 3C_{kk} - e_k^TC1 cr
                          }$$

                          There are more unknowns than equations, so let's constrain the matrix to $C={rm Diag}(c).$
                          $$eqalign{
                          0 &= y_k + 3c_{k} - e_k^Tc cr
                          c_k &= -tfrac{1}{2}y_k &implies
                          C &= -tfrac{1}{2}{rm Diag}(y) cr
                          }$$

                          Putting it all together, and generalizing the dimensions from $(3to n)$ yields
                          $$eqalign{
                          X &= tfrac{1}{n}y1^T - tfrac{1}{n-1}{rm Diag}(y) + tfrac{1}{n(n-1)}{rm Diag}(y)11^T cr
                          }$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Jan 26 at 20:53

























                          answered Jan 26 at 19:39









                          greggreg

                          8,6851823




                          8,6851823






























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