Is my proof of $x^n-y^n = ldots$ correct?












2












$begingroup$


I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:



$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$



Question 1: Is my proof correct?



Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?





My proof:



I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$



We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$



We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.





alternative proof:



Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$



Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Chrystomath
    Jan 24 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 24 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    @Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:44










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 27 at 9:07
















2












$begingroup$


I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:



$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$



Question 1: Is my proof correct?



Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?





My proof:



I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$



We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$



We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.





alternative proof:



Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$



Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Chrystomath
    Jan 24 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 24 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    @Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:44










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 27 at 9:07














2












2








2





$begingroup$


I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:



$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$



Question 1: Is my proof correct?



Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?





My proof:



I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$



We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$



We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.





alternative proof:



Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$



Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:



$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$



Question 1: Is my proof correct?



Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?





My proof:



I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$



Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$



We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$



We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$



And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.





alternative proof:



Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$



Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$







algebra-precalculus proof-verification induction






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edited Jan 29 at 2:05







caveman

















asked Jan 24 at 10:25









cavemancaveman

19311




19311












  • $begingroup$
    How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Chrystomath
    Jan 24 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 24 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    @Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:44










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 27 at 9:07


















  • $begingroup$
    How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Chrystomath
    Jan 24 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 24 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    @Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:44










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 24 at 11:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 27 at 9:07
















$begingroup$
How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
$endgroup$
– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32




$begingroup$
How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
$endgroup$
– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32












$begingroup$
Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23




$begingroup$
Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23












$begingroup$
@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44




$begingroup$
@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44












$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45




$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45




1




1




$begingroup$
If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07




$begingroup$
If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:



1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.



2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.



3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:



$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$



4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):



$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$



So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 29 at 2:08










  • $begingroup$
    @caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 29 at 9:18



















1












$begingroup$

More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






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$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 25 at 0:06










  • $begingroup$
    The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 25 at 10:02










  • $begingroup$
    I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 25 at 14:18










  • $begingroup$
    In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 26 at 10:03





















0












$begingroup$

$(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n - 1$



Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:



    1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.



    2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.



    3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$



    4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$



    So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 29 at 2:08










    • $begingroup$
      @caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
      $endgroup$
      – gandalf61
      Jan 29 at 9:18
















    1












    $begingroup$

    A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:



    1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.



    2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.



    3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$



    4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$



    So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 29 at 2:08










    • $begingroup$
      @caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
      $endgroup$
      – gandalf61
      Jan 29 at 9:18














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:



    1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.



    2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.



    3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$



    4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$



    So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:



    1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.



    2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.



    3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$



    4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):



    $quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$



    So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 24 at 14:55









    gandalf61gandalf61

    8,926725




    8,926725












    • $begingroup$
      Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 29 at 2:08










    • $begingroup$
      @caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
      $endgroup$
      – gandalf61
      Jan 29 at 9:18


















    • $begingroup$
      Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 29 at 2:08










    • $begingroup$
      @caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
      $endgroup$
      – gandalf61
      Jan 29 at 9:18
















    $begingroup$
    Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 29 at 2:08




    $begingroup$
    Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 29 at 2:08












    $begingroup$
    @caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 29 at 9:18




    $begingroup$
    @caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 29 at 9:18











    1












    $begingroup$

    More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 0:06










    • $begingroup$
      The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 25 at 10:02










    • $begingroup$
      I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 14:18










    • $begingroup$
      In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 26 at 10:03


















    1












    $begingroup$

    More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 0:06










    • $begingroup$
      The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 25 at 10:02










    • $begingroup$
      I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 14:18










    • $begingroup$
      In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 26 at 10:03
















    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 24 at 20:10









    DanielWainfleetDanielWainfleet

    35.4k31648




    35.4k31648












    • $begingroup$
      I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 0:06










    • $begingroup$
      The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 25 at 10:02










    • $begingroup$
      I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 14:18










    • $begingroup$
      In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 26 at 10:03




















    • $begingroup$
      I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 0:06










    • $begingroup$
      The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 25 at 10:02










    • $begingroup$
      I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – caveman
      Jan 25 at 14:18










    • $begingroup$
      In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
      $endgroup$
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 26 at 10:03


















    $begingroup$
    I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 25 at 0:06




    $begingroup$
    I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 25 at 0:06












    $begingroup$
    The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 25 at 10:02




    $begingroup$
    The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 25 at 10:02












    $begingroup$
    I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 25 at 14:18




    $begingroup$
    I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – caveman
    Jan 25 at 14:18












    $begingroup$
    In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 26 at 10:03






    $begingroup$
    In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 26 at 10:03













    0












    $begingroup$

    $(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
    $a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
    $a^n - 1$



    Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      $(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
      $a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
      $a^n - 1$



      Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        $(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
        $a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
        $a^n - 1$



        Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
        $a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
        $a^n - 1$



        Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 24 at 21:13









        William ElliotWilliam Elliot

        8,5122720




        8,5122720






























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