Is my proof of $x^n-y^n = ldots$ correct?
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I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:
$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$
Question 1: Is my proof correct?
Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?
My proof:
I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$
We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$
We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.
alternative proof:
Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$
Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$
algebra-precalculus proof-verification induction
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show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:
$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$
Question 1: Is my proof correct?
Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?
My proof:
I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$
We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$
We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.
alternative proof:
Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$
Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$
algebra-precalculus proof-verification induction
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How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
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– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32
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Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
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– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23
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@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
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– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44
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@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
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– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45
1
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If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
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– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07
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show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:
$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$
Question 1: Is my proof correct?
Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?
My proof:
I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$
We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$
We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.
alternative proof:
Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$
Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$
algebra-precalculus proof-verification induction
$endgroup$
I am solving problems from Spivak's calculus book's 1st chapter. Basically Spivak wants me to prove this:
$$x^n-y^n = (x-y)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1})$$
Question 1: Is my proof correct?
Question 2: How to make it perfect? Any advise?
My proof:
I guess Spivak wants to say:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Let:
$$
f(x,y,n) = left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
$$
Then we can say (is this sub-proof perfect?):
$$begin{split}
x^{n+1}-y^{n+1} &= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n+1} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)left(
begin{split}
&x^{(n+1)-(n+1)} y^{(n+1)-1}\
&+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
end{split}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
x^{0} y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{(n+1)-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xsum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}
right)\
&= (x-y)left(
y^{n}
+ xf(x,y,n)
right)\
end{split}$$
We can also rewrite what Spivak wants into:
$$
x^n-y^n = (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)
$$
We've already proven in [spivak_calc_probs.1.1.2]:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)(x+y)\
&= (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=2} x^{2-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
Then, by induction, we prove that:
$$begin{split}
x^2-y^2 &= (x-y)Big(y^{2-1} + xf(x,y,2-1)Big)\
x^3-y^3 &= (x-y)Big(y^{3-1} + xf(x,y,3-1)Big)\
vdots\
x^n-y^n &= (x-y)Big(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1)Big)\
end{split}$$
And since $(x-y)(y^{n-1} + xf(x,y,n-1))$ is only a rewrite of what Spivak
wants, i.e. $(x-y)(x^{n-1}$ $+$ $x^{n-2}y$ $+$ $ldots$ $+$ $xy^{n-2})$,
therefore Q.E.D already.
alternative proof:
Using the distributive axiom:
$$begin{split}
& (x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{n-n}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(x^{0}y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-yleft(y^{n-1} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)\
&= xleft(sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{1-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1}y^{0} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= xleft(x^{n-1} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=2}^{i=n} x^{n-i+1}y^{i-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-(i+1)+1}y^{(i+1)-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i-1+1}y^{i+1-1}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= left(x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)
-left(y^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
end{split}$$
Then using additive associative axiom:
$$begin{split}
& x^{n} + sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- y^{n} - sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}
- sum_{i=1}^{i=n-1} x^{n-i}y^{i}right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
+ left(0right)\
&= x^{n}
- y^{n}
end{split}$$
algebra-precalculus proof-verification induction
algebra-precalculus proof-verification induction
edited Jan 29 at 2:05
caveman
asked Jan 24 at 10:25
cavemancaveman
19311
19311
$begingroup$
How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
$endgroup$
– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32
$begingroup$
Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23
$begingroup$
@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44
$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45
1
$begingroup$
If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
$endgroup$
– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32
$begingroup$
Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23
$begingroup$
@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44
$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45
1
$begingroup$
If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07
$begingroup$
How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
$endgroup$
– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32
$begingroup$
How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
$endgroup$
– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32
$begingroup$
Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23
$begingroup$
Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23
$begingroup$
@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44
$begingroup$
@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44
$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45
$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45
1
1
$begingroup$
If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07
$begingroup$
If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07
|
show 2 more comments
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:
1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.
2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.
3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$
4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$
So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 29 at 2:08
$begingroup$
@caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 29 at 9:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 0:06
$begingroup$
The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 25 at 10:02
$begingroup$
I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 14:18
$begingroup$
In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 26 at 10:03
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n - 1$
Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:
1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.
2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.
3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$
4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$
So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 29 at 2:08
$begingroup$
@caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 29 at 9:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:
1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.
2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.
3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$
4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$
So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 29 at 2:08
$begingroup$
@caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 29 at 9:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:
1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.
2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.
3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$
4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$
So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.
$endgroup$
A proof by induction (although in this case it's not the simplest approach, as pointed out in comments) would proceed as follows:
1) Base case - show the the expansion is correct for $n=1$. In this case the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ has only one term which is $x^0y^0=1$ so this is straightforward.
2) Assume the expansion is correct for a specifc value of $n$, say $n=k$.
3) Find an expression that relates the $n=k+1$ case to the $n=k$ case. You could try:
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x^k-y^k) + (x-y)y^k$
4) Use (2) to expand your expression from (3):
$quad x^{k+1}-y^{k+1} = x(x-y)sum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + (x-y)y^k\ quad=(x-y)left( xsum_{i=1}^{i=k} x^{k-i}y^{i-1} + y^kright) \quad =(x-y)left(sum_{i=1}^{i=k+1} x^{k+1-i}y^{i-1}right)$
So now you have shown that if the expansion is true for $n=k$ then it is also true for $n=k+1$. Together with your base case $n=1$, this proves by induction that the expansion is true for all $n in mathbb{N}$.
answered Jan 24 at 14:55
gandalf61gandalf61
8,926725
8,926725
$begingroup$
Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 29 at 2:08
$begingroup$
@caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 29 at 9:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 29 at 2:08
$begingroup$
@caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 29 at 9:18
$begingroup$
Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 29 at 2:08
$begingroup$
Any reason a base case of $1$ is preferred? E.g. $2$ as I used is inadequate somehow? Also should I add extra text to prove for $n<0$?
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 29 at 2:08
$begingroup$
@caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 29 at 9:18
$begingroup$
@caveman You can use 2 as a base case if you like, but then you are only proving for $nge2$. For $n<0$, the theorem as stated does not make sense because the sum $sum_{i=1}^{i=n} x^{n-i}y^{i-1}$ assumes $n ge 1$. So first you would have to replace the right hand side of the equation by an expression that makes sense for $n<0$, and then you would have to construct a new proof.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 29 at 9:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 0:06
$begingroup$
The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 25 at 10:02
$begingroup$
I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 14:18
$begingroup$
In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 26 at 10:03
add a comment |
$begingroup$
More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
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– caveman
Jan 25 at 0:06
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The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
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– DanielWainfleet
Jan 25 at 10:02
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I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
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– caveman
Jan 25 at 14:18
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In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
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– DanielWainfleet
Jan 26 at 10:03
add a comment |
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More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$
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More simply, in your first proof, for brevity let $S(n)$ be the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n.$ Then, using your calculation that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n),$ we have $$S(n)implies (x-y)f(x,y,n+1)=$$ $$=(x-y)(y^n+xf(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(( x-y)f(x,y,n))=$$ $$=xy^n-y^{n+1}+(x)(x^n-y^n)=$$ $$=x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}.$$ That is, we have $$S(n)implies S(n+1).$$ And $S(1)$ is true because $f(x,y,1)=1.$ So by induction on $n$ we have $S(n)$ for all $nin Bbb N.$
answered Jan 24 at 20:10
DanielWainfleetDanielWainfleet
35.4k31648
35.4k31648
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I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 0:06
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The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 25 at 10:02
$begingroup$
I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 14:18
$begingroup$
In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 26 at 10:03
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 0:06
$begingroup$
The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 25 at 10:02
$begingroup$
I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 14:18
$begingroup$
In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 26 at 10:03
$begingroup$
I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 0:06
$begingroup$
I am a bit confusedby the 1st line. You said "the sentence $(x-y)f(x,y,n)=x^n-y^n$". But is this true? So far I think I proved that $(x-y)(y^{n-1}+xf(x,y,n))=x^n-y^n$. I don't get how did you remove the $y^{n-1}$ term and the $x$ scaler.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 0:06
$begingroup$
The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 25 at 10:02
$begingroup$
The 1st sentence says nothing about the truth of S(n). I am just defining an abbreviation
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 25 at 10:02
$begingroup$
I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 14:18
$begingroup$
I get $S(n)$, but I don't get why did you say that $f(x,y,n) = y^{n-1} +xf(x,y,n-1)$.
$endgroup$
– caveman
Jan 25 at 14:18
$begingroup$
In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 26 at 10:03
$begingroup$
In the 5 displayed lines of your "sub-proof", erase "$x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=$" and erase the term "$(x-y)$" from the RHS of each of the 5 lines and you have a proof that $f(x,y,n+1)=y^n+xf(x,y,n).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 26 at 10:03
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n - 1$
Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n - 1$
Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n - 1$
Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.
$endgroup$
$(a - 1)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n + a^{n-1} + ... + a - (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + ... + 1) =$
$a^n - 1$
Set a = x/y and multiply by y$^n$.
answered Jan 24 at 21:13
William ElliotWilliam Elliot
8,5122720
8,5122720
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
How do you justify your very first line of the proof, that $x^{n+1}-y^{n+1}=(x-y)(cdots)$? Try writing $xx^n-yy^n=xx^n-xy^n+xy^n-yy^n$.
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– Chrystomath
Jan 24 at 10:32
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Induction is the hard way. Simply use distributivity.
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– William Elliot
Jan 24 at 11:23
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@Chrystomath I just replaced $n$ by $n+1$. Is this not enough? E.g. $n$ could be any number, and $n+1$ is just another number. No?
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– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:44
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@WilliamElliot Yeah will do that. Didn't know. But for now, is my induction approach perfect? I am trying to learn how to prove things properly.
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– caveman
Jan 24 at 11:45
1
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If a question is supposed to be about your particular - as opposed to asking for any solution - you should include the (proof-verification) tag. See the tag-info for more details.
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– Martin Sleziak
Jan 27 at 9:07