Fourier transform of $e^{-ax^2}$ in $mathbb{R}^2$
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I'm trying to solve the following Fourier transform, or at least I'm trying to simplify it a bit
$$ mathcal{F}(e^{-ax^2})(xi,eta) = int_{mathbb{R^2}} e^{-i(xxi+yeta)}e^{-ax^2}dxdy $$
for $a > 0$.
One of the problems I'm finding is that the integrand function is not summable in $mathbb{R}^2$, hence integrating is not that immediate. Thank you for any help.
integration fourier-transform
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to solve the following Fourier transform, or at least I'm trying to simplify it a bit
$$ mathcal{F}(e^{-ax^2})(xi,eta) = int_{mathbb{R^2}} e^{-i(xxi+yeta)}e^{-ax^2}dxdy $$
for $a > 0$.
One of the problems I'm finding is that the integrand function is not summable in $mathbb{R}^2$, hence integrating is not that immediate. Thank you for any help.
integration fourier-transform
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Try polar coordinates.
$endgroup$
– lightxbulb
Jan 23 at 11:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to solve the following Fourier transform, or at least I'm trying to simplify it a bit
$$ mathcal{F}(e^{-ax^2})(xi,eta) = int_{mathbb{R^2}} e^{-i(xxi+yeta)}e^{-ax^2}dxdy $$
for $a > 0$.
One of the problems I'm finding is that the integrand function is not summable in $mathbb{R}^2$, hence integrating is not that immediate. Thank you for any help.
integration fourier-transform
$endgroup$
I'm trying to solve the following Fourier transform, or at least I'm trying to simplify it a bit
$$ mathcal{F}(e^{-ax^2})(xi,eta) = int_{mathbb{R^2}} e^{-i(xxi+yeta)}e^{-ax^2}dxdy $$
for $a > 0$.
One of the problems I'm finding is that the integrand function is not summable in $mathbb{R}^2$, hence integrating is not that immediate. Thank you for any help.
integration fourier-transform
integration fourier-transform
asked Jan 23 at 11:13
AlakaeiAlakaei
83
83
$begingroup$
Try polar coordinates.
$endgroup$
– lightxbulb
Jan 23 at 11:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try polar coordinates.
$endgroup$
– lightxbulb
Jan 23 at 11:42
$begingroup$
Try polar coordinates.
$endgroup$
– lightxbulb
Jan 23 at 11:42
$begingroup$
Try polar coordinates.
$endgroup$
– lightxbulb
Jan 23 at 11:42
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
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As you pointed out, the integral you wrote is not well defined. You have to think of $f(x,y) = e^{-ax^2}$ as a tempered distribution. Let $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ and $f_2(y) = 1$. The function $f$ can be written as $f_1 otimes f_2$. Therefore we have
$$mathcal F(f)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1 otimes f_2)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1)otimesmathcal F(f_2)(xi, eta).$$
The Fourier transform of $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ is $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}$ and the Fourier transform of $f_2(y) = 1$ is $2pi delta(eta)$.
So, we obtain the formula
$$mathcal F(f) =2pi sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}delta(eta).$$
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1
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Awesome thank you. Just a thing: I believe it's $check{delta}(eta) = delta( - eta)$. Is this correct?
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– Alakaei
Jan 23 at 14:31
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You are welcome. I'm not sure what do you mean by $check delta$. I just used that the Fouruer transform of $1$ is $2pi delta$, where $delta$ is the Dirac delta.
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– Hugocito
Jan 23 at 19:59
1
$begingroup$
Okay I said something correct, but trivial, and you are correct. I got confused because by the inversion formula is easy provable that if $u$ is a tempered distribution, then $mathcal{F}mathcal{F}(u) = 2pi check{u}$, where if $f$ is a function then $check{f}(x) = f(-x)$, if $u$ a distribution $check{u}(f) = u(check{f})$. But in Dirac's delta case $check{delta} = delta$. Anyway thanks again!
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 24 at 11:17
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
As you pointed out, the integral you wrote is not well defined. You have to think of $f(x,y) = e^{-ax^2}$ as a tempered distribution. Let $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ and $f_2(y) = 1$. The function $f$ can be written as $f_1 otimes f_2$. Therefore we have
$$mathcal F(f)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1 otimes f_2)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1)otimesmathcal F(f_2)(xi, eta).$$
The Fourier transform of $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ is $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}$ and the Fourier transform of $f_2(y) = 1$ is $2pi delta(eta)$.
So, we obtain the formula
$$mathcal F(f) =2pi sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}delta(eta).$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Awesome thank you. Just a thing: I believe it's $check{delta}(eta) = delta( - eta)$. Is this correct?
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 23 at 14:31
$begingroup$
You are welcome. I'm not sure what do you mean by $check delta$. I just used that the Fouruer transform of $1$ is $2pi delta$, where $delta$ is the Dirac delta.
$endgroup$
– Hugocito
Jan 23 at 19:59
1
$begingroup$
Okay I said something correct, but trivial, and you are correct. I got confused because by the inversion formula is easy provable that if $u$ is a tempered distribution, then $mathcal{F}mathcal{F}(u) = 2pi check{u}$, where if $f$ is a function then $check{f}(x) = f(-x)$, if $u$ a distribution $check{u}(f) = u(check{f})$. But in Dirac's delta case $check{delta} = delta$. Anyway thanks again!
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 24 at 11:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As you pointed out, the integral you wrote is not well defined. You have to think of $f(x,y) = e^{-ax^2}$ as a tempered distribution. Let $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ and $f_2(y) = 1$. The function $f$ can be written as $f_1 otimes f_2$. Therefore we have
$$mathcal F(f)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1 otimes f_2)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1)otimesmathcal F(f_2)(xi, eta).$$
The Fourier transform of $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ is $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}$ and the Fourier transform of $f_2(y) = 1$ is $2pi delta(eta)$.
So, we obtain the formula
$$mathcal F(f) =2pi sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}delta(eta).$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Awesome thank you. Just a thing: I believe it's $check{delta}(eta) = delta( - eta)$. Is this correct?
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 23 at 14:31
$begingroup$
You are welcome. I'm not sure what do you mean by $check delta$. I just used that the Fouruer transform of $1$ is $2pi delta$, where $delta$ is the Dirac delta.
$endgroup$
– Hugocito
Jan 23 at 19:59
1
$begingroup$
Okay I said something correct, but trivial, and you are correct. I got confused because by the inversion formula is easy provable that if $u$ is a tempered distribution, then $mathcal{F}mathcal{F}(u) = 2pi check{u}$, where if $f$ is a function then $check{f}(x) = f(-x)$, if $u$ a distribution $check{u}(f) = u(check{f})$. But in Dirac's delta case $check{delta} = delta$. Anyway thanks again!
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 24 at 11:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As you pointed out, the integral you wrote is not well defined. You have to think of $f(x,y) = e^{-ax^2}$ as a tempered distribution. Let $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ and $f_2(y) = 1$. The function $f$ can be written as $f_1 otimes f_2$. Therefore we have
$$mathcal F(f)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1 otimes f_2)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1)otimesmathcal F(f_2)(xi, eta).$$
The Fourier transform of $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ is $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}$ and the Fourier transform of $f_2(y) = 1$ is $2pi delta(eta)$.
So, we obtain the formula
$$mathcal F(f) =2pi sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}delta(eta).$$
$endgroup$
As you pointed out, the integral you wrote is not well defined. You have to think of $f(x,y) = e^{-ax^2}$ as a tempered distribution. Let $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ and $f_2(y) = 1$. The function $f$ can be written as $f_1 otimes f_2$. Therefore we have
$$mathcal F(f)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1 otimes f_2)(xi, eta) = mathcal F(f_1)otimesmathcal F(f_2)(xi, eta).$$
The Fourier transform of $f_1(x) = e^{-ax^2}$ is $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}$ and the Fourier transform of $f_2(y) = 1$ is $2pi delta(eta)$.
So, we obtain the formula
$$mathcal F(f) =2pi sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-frac{xi^2}{4a}}delta(eta).$$
answered Jan 23 at 11:46
HugocitoHugocito
1,84411320
1,84411320
1
$begingroup$
Awesome thank you. Just a thing: I believe it's $check{delta}(eta) = delta( - eta)$. Is this correct?
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 23 at 14:31
$begingroup$
You are welcome. I'm not sure what do you mean by $check delta$. I just used that the Fouruer transform of $1$ is $2pi delta$, where $delta$ is the Dirac delta.
$endgroup$
– Hugocito
Jan 23 at 19:59
1
$begingroup$
Okay I said something correct, but trivial, and you are correct. I got confused because by the inversion formula is easy provable that if $u$ is a tempered distribution, then $mathcal{F}mathcal{F}(u) = 2pi check{u}$, where if $f$ is a function then $check{f}(x) = f(-x)$, if $u$ a distribution $check{u}(f) = u(check{f})$. But in Dirac's delta case $check{delta} = delta$. Anyway thanks again!
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 24 at 11:17
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Awesome thank you. Just a thing: I believe it's $check{delta}(eta) = delta( - eta)$. Is this correct?
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 23 at 14:31
$begingroup$
You are welcome. I'm not sure what do you mean by $check delta$. I just used that the Fouruer transform of $1$ is $2pi delta$, where $delta$ is the Dirac delta.
$endgroup$
– Hugocito
Jan 23 at 19:59
1
$begingroup$
Okay I said something correct, but trivial, and you are correct. I got confused because by the inversion formula is easy provable that if $u$ is a tempered distribution, then $mathcal{F}mathcal{F}(u) = 2pi check{u}$, where if $f$ is a function then $check{f}(x) = f(-x)$, if $u$ a distribution $check{u}(f) = u(check{f})$. But in Dirac's delta case $check{delta} = delta$. Anyway thanks again!
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 24 at 11:17
1
1
$begingroup$
Awesome thank you. Just a thing: I believe it's $check{delta}(eta) = delta( - eta)$. Is this correct?
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 23 at 14:31
$begingroup$
Awesome thank you. Just a thing: I believe it's $check{delta}(eta) = delta( - eta)$. Is this correct?
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 23 at 14:31
$begingroup$
You are welcome. I'm not sure what do you mean by $check delta$. I just used that the Fouruer transform of $1$ is $2pi delta$, where $delta$ is the Dirac delta.
$endgroup$
– Hugocito
Jan 23 at 19:59
$begingroup$
You are welcome. I'm not sure what do you mean by $check delta$. I just used that the Fouruer transform of $1$ is $2pi delta$, where $delta$ is the Dirac delta.
$endgroup$
– Hugocito
Jan 23 at 19:59
1
1
$begingroup$
Okay I said something correct, but trivial, and you are correct. I got confused because by the inversion formula is easy provable that if $u$ is a tempered distribution, then $mathcal{F}mathcal{F}(u) = 2pi check{u}$, where if $f$ is a function then $check{f}(x) = f(-x)$, if $u$ a distribution $check{u}(f) = u(check{f})$. But in Dirac's delta case $check{delta} = delta$. Anyway thanks again!
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 24 at 11:17
$begingroup$
Okay I said something correct, but trivial, and you are correct. I got confused because by the inversion formula is easy provable that if $u$ is a tempered distribution, then $mathcal{F}mathcal{F}(u) = 2pi check{u}$, where if $f$ is a function then $check{f}(x) = f(-x)$, if $u$ a distribution $check{u}(f) = u(check{f})$. But in Dirac's delta case $check{delta} = delta$. Anyway thanks again!
$endgroup$
– Alakaei
Jan 24 at 11:17
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Try polar coordinates.
$endgroup$
– lightxbulb
Jan 23 at 11:42