Some basic questions about two definition of limit point in Zorich‘s “Mathematical Analysis I”












0












$begingroup$


I'm new at the mathematic analysis and currently reading Zorich's book. When I read the definition about the limit point, I noticed that it's a bit different than Rudin's "Mathematical Principle"
Rudin's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an at least one point different from $p$ itself.




While the Zorich's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an infinite subset of $X$.




The book of Zorich then mentions Rudin's definition and says these two are equivalent and asks for verification. Here is what I tried.



From Zorich's definition, $forall N(p),exists Ssubset X(S is infinite)$, the Rudin's definition is quite obvious, just find another point in $S$



Here is what really have confused me.



From Rudin's definition, I begin with finding a subset $S$ of $N(p)$ that contains $p$, and then try to prove such $S$ can not be finite by contradiction.



Here is what I did, Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$, then assume $S$ is finite. Since $S$ is finite, there exists such $q^primein S$ such that $d(q^prime,p)=d(q,p)_{min}$, Then for the neiborhood of $p$ with radius $r<d(q^prime,p)$, there is no such $qin N(p)$ exists then contradict.



But then I realize that my proof is some sort of prove for a $S$ which is the set containing all $q$, not for some specific $q$. Since there might be infinite $q$, my proof is wrong.(from my understading)



Is it right or wrong, and why. I am really new at this. And it's my first question in this site, if I did something wrong pls tell me. THX.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, but I am not quite sure about the usage of the set $S$. I cannot get what the set $S$ exactly is.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Tips on typing math: to use the prime $'$, just use the single quotation mark ', or use the command prime by typing something like p^prime, as in $p^prime$.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:37












  • $begingroup$
    THXs for the tip, I just rewrote the usage of $S$ as the set which contains all $q$.
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:40










  • $begingroup$
    These are equivalent over any Hausdorff Space. Rudin's definition is more general though.
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Jan 23 at 21:40
















0












$begingroup$


I'm new at the mathematic analysis and currently reading Zorich's book. When I read the definition about the limit point, I noticed that it's a bit different than Rudin's "Mathematical Principle"
Rudin's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an at least one point different from $p$ itself.




While the Zorich's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an infinite subset of $X$.




The book of Zorich then mentions Rudin's definition and says these two are equivalent and asks for verification. Here is what I tried.



From Zorich's definition, $forall N(p),exists Ssubset X(S is infinite)$, the Rudin's definition is quite obvious, just find another point in $S$



Here is what really have confused me.



From Rudin's definition, I begin with finding a subset $S$ of $N(p)$ that contains $p$, and then try to prove such $S$ can not be finite by contradiction.



Here is what I did, Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$, then assume $S$ is finite. Since $S$ is finite, there exists such $q^primein S$ such that $d(q^prime,p)=d(q,p)_{min}$, Then for the neiborhood of $p$ with radius $r<d(q^prime,p)$, there is no such $qin N(p)$ exists then contradict.



But then I realize that my proof is some sort of prove for a $S$ which is the set containing all $q$, not for some specific $q$. Since there might be infinite $q$, my proof is wrong.(from my understading)



Is it right or wrong, and why. I am really new at this. And it's my first question in this site, if I did something wrong pls tell me. THX.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, but I am not quite sure about the usage of the set $S$. I cannot get what the set $S$ exactly is.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Tips on typing math: to use the prime $'$, just use the single quotation mark ', or use the command prime by typing something like p^prime, as in $p^prime$.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:37












  • $begingroup$
    THXs for the tip, I just rewrote the usage of $S$ as the set which contains all $q$.
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:40










  • $begingroup$
    These are equivalent over any Hausdorff Space. Rudin's definition is more general though.
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Jan 23 at 21:40














0












0








0


0



$begingroup$


I'm new at the mathematic analysis and currently reading Zorich's book. When I read the definition about the limit point, I noticed that it's a bit different than Rudin's "Mathematical Principle"
Rudin's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an at least one point different from $p$ itself.




While the Zorich's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an infinite subset of $X$.




The book of Zorich then mentions Rudin's definition and says these two are equivalent and asks for verification. Here is what I tried.



From Zorich's definition, $forall N(p),exists Ssubset X(S is infinite)$, the Rudin's definition is quite obvious, just find another point in $S$



Here is what really have confused me.



From Rudin's definition, I begin with finding a subset $S$ of $N(p)$ that contains $p$, and then try to prove such $S$ can not be finite by contradiction.



Here is what I did, Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$, then assume $S$ is finite. Since $S$ is finite, there exists such $q^primein S$ such that $d(q^prime,p)=d(q,p)_{min}$, Then for the neiborhood of $p$ with radius $r<d(q^prime,p)$, there is no such $qin N(p)$ exists then contradict.



But then I realize that my proof is some sort of prove for a $S$ which is the set containing all $q$, not for some specific $q$. Since there might be infinite $q$, my proof is wrong.(from my understading)



Is it right or wrong, and why. I am really new at this. And it's my first question in this site, if I did something wrong pls tell me. THX.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm new at the mathematic analysis and currently reading Zorich's book. When I read the definition about the limit point, I noticed that it's a bit different than Rudin's "Mathematical Principle"
Rudin's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an at least one point different from $p$ itself.




While the Zorich's definition is




A point $p$ $in$ $R$ is a limit point of $Xsubset R$ if every neiborhood of the point $p$ contains an infinite subset of $X$.




The book of Zorich then mentions Rudin's definition and says these two are equivalent and asks for verification. Here is what I tried.



From Zorich's definition, $forall N(p),exists Ssubset X(S is infinite)$, the Rudin's definition is quite obvious, just find another point in $S$



Here is what really have confused me.



From Rudin's definition, I begin with finding a subset $S$ of $N(p)$ that contains $p$, and then try to prove such $S$ can not be finite by contradiction.



Here is what I did, Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$, then assume $S$ is finite. Since $S$ is finite, there exists such $q^primein S$ such that $d(q^prime,p)=d(q,p)_{min}$, Then for the neiborhood of $p$ with radius $r<d(q^prime,p)$, there is no such $qin N(p)$ exists then contradict.



But then I realize that my proof is some sort of prove for a $S$ which is the set containing all $q$, not for some specific $q$. Since there might be infinite $q$, my proof is wrong.(from my understading)



Is it right or wrong, and why. I am really new at this. And it's my first question in this site, if I did something wrong pls tell me. THX.







real-analysis proof-verification






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 23 at 12:38







卢弘毅

















asked Jan 23 at 12:24









卢弘毅卢弘毅

11




11












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, but I am not quite sure about the usage of the set $S$. I cannot get what the set $S$ exactly is.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Tips on typing math: to use the prime $'$, just use the single quotation mark ', or use the command prime by typing something like p^prime, as in $p^prime$.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:37












  • $begingroup$
    THXs for the tip, I just rewrote the usage of $S$ as the set which contains all $q$.
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:40










  • $begingroup$
    These are equivalent over any Hausdorff Space. Rudin's definition is more general though.
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Jan 23 at 21:40


















  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, but I am not quite sure about the usage of the set $S$. I cannot get what the set $S$ exactly is.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Tips on typing math: to use the prime $'$, just use the single quotation mark ', or use the command prime by typing something like p^prime, as in $p^prime$.
    $endgroup$
    – xbh
    Jan 23 at 12:37












  • $begingroup$
    THXs for the tip, I just rewrote the usage of $S$ as the set which contains all $q$.
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:40










  • $begingroup$
    These are equivalent over any Hausdorff Space. Rudin's definition is more general though.
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Jan 23 at 21:40
















$begingroup$
Sorry, but I am not quite sure about the usage of the set $S$. I cannot get what the set $S$ exactly is.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 23 at 12:34




$begingroup$
Sorry, but I am not quite sure about the usage of the set $S$. I cannot get what the set $S$ exactly is.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 23 at 12:34












$begingroup$
Tips on typing math: to use the prime $'$, just use the single quotation mark ', or use the command prime by typing something like p^prime, as in $p^prime$.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 23 at 12:37






$begingroup$
Tips on typing math: to use the prime $'$, just use the single quotation mark ', or use the command prime by typing something like p^prime, as in $p^prime$.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 23 at 12:37














$begingroup$
THXs for the tip, I just rewrote the usage of $S$ as the set which contains all $q$.
$endgroup$
– 卢弘毅
Jan 23 at 12:40




$begingroup$
THXs for the tip, I just rewrote the usage of $S$ as the set which contains all $q$.
$endgroup$
– 卢弘毅
Jan 23 at 12:40












$begingroup$
These are equivalent over any Hausdorff Space. Rudin's definition is more general though.
$endgroup$
– Brevan Ellefsen
Jan 23 at 21:40




$begingroup$
These are equivalent over any Hausdorff Space. Rudin's definition is more general though.
$endgroup$
– Brevan Ellefsen
Jan 23 at 21:40










1 Answer
1






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oldest

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0












$begingroup$

I don't understand your proof, and therefore I cannot comment on it. However, if $pinmathbb R$ is such that some neighborhood $U$ of $p$ only has finitely many elements of $X$, then $p$ is not a limit point of $X$. In fact, let $F=Ucap X$. I am assuming that it is finite. Take $varepsilon>0$ such that $(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)cap F=emptyset$. Then $Ucap(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)$ is a neighborhood of $x$ which has no element of $X$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot, I just edited my $S$ as a set that contains all possible $q$
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    I still don't get your definition of $S$. You wrote “Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$”. Since you wrote before that $S$ is a subset of $X$, the final two characters are redundant. But what is $q$?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 23 at 13:10











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

I don't understand your proof, and therefore I cannot comment on it. However, if $pinmathbb R$ is such that some neighborhood $U$ of $p$ only has finitely many elements of $X$, then $p$ is not a limit point of $X$. In fact, let $F=Ucap X$. I am assuming that it is finite. Take $varepsilon>0$ such that $(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)cap F=emptyset$. Then $Ucap(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)$ is a neighborhood of $x$ which has no element of $X$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot, I just edited my $S$ as a set that contains all possible $q$
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    I still don't get your definition of $S$. You wrote “Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$”. Since you wrote before that $S$ is a subset of $X$, the final two characters are redundant. But what is $q$?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 23 at 13:10
















0












$begingroup$

I don't understand your proof, and therefore I cannot comment on it. However, if $pinmathbb R$ is such that some neighborhood $U$ of $p$ only has finitely many elements of $X$, then $p$ is not a limit point of $X$. In fact, let $F=Ucap X$. I am assuming that it is finite. Take $varepsilon>0$ such that $(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)cap F=emptyset$. Then $Ucap(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)$ is a neighborhood of $x$ which has no element of $X$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot, I just edited my $S$ as a set that contains all possible $q$
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    I still don't get your definition of $S$. You wrote “Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$”. Since you wrote before that $S$ is a subset of $X$, the final two characters are redundant. But what is $q$?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 23 at 13:10














0












0








0





$begingroup$

I don't understand your proof, and therefore I cannot comment on it. However, if $pinmathbb R$ is such that some neighborhood $U$ of $p$ only has finitely many elements of $X$, then $p$ is not a limit point of $X$. In fact, let $F=Ucap X$. I am assuming that it is finite. Take $varepsilon>0$ such that $(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)cap F=emptyset$. Then $Ucap(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)$ is a neighborhood of $x$ which has no element of $X$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



I don't understand your proof, and therefore I cannot comment on it. However, if $pinmathbb R$ is such that some neighborhood $U$ of $p$ only has finitely many elements of $X$, then $p$ is not a limit point of $X$. In fact, let $F=Ucap X$. I am assuming that it is finite. Take $varepsilon>0$ such that $(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)cap F=emptyset$. Then $Ucap(x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon)$ is a neighborhood of $x$ which has no element of $X$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 23 at 12:31









José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

165k22132235




165k22132235












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot, I just edited my $S$ as a set that contains all possible $q$
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    I still don't get your definition of $S$. You wrote “Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$”. Since you wrote before that $S$ is a subset of $X$, the final two characters are redundant. But what is $q$?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 23 at 13:10


















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot, I just edited my $S$ as a set that contains all possible $q$
    $endgroup$
    – 卢弘毅
    Jan 23 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    I still don't get your definition of $S$. You wrote “Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$”. Since you wrote before that $S$ is a subset of $X$, the final two characters are redundant. But what is $q$?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 23 at 13:10
















$begingroup$
Thanks a lot, I just edited my $S$ as a set that contains all possible $q$
$endgroup$
– 卢弘毅
Jan 23 at 12:42




$begingroup$
Thanks a lot, I just edited my $S$ as a set that contains all possible $q$
$endgroup$
– 卢弘毅
Jan 23 at 12:42












$begingroup$
I still don't get your definition of $S$. You wrote “Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$”. Since you wrote before that $S$ is a subset of $X$, the final two characters are redundant. But what is $q$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 23 at 13:10




$begingroup$
I still don't get your definition of $S$. You wrote “Let $S$ be a subset of $X$ such that $qin Ssubset X$”. Since you wrote before that $S$ is a subset of $X$, the final two characters are redundant. But what is $q$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 23 at 13:10


















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