$f_1 , f_2 , … , f_n $ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ , and also...












1












$begingroup$


$f_1 , f_2 , ... , f_n $ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ , and also $$|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Can we prove that each of $f_k$ is constant ?

My attempt :

If $n=1$ , we can find a $theta$ such that $f_1' =f_1 e^{i theta}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then $f_1 ' $ is a constant so $f_1$ is a constant .



If $n gt 1$ , then we can find a sequence $theta_1 ,..., theta_n$ such that $f_1 e^{i theta_1} +...+ f_n e^{i theta_n}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Let $f_k'=e^{i theta_k} f_k$ , we find that $$|f_1'|+...+|f_k'| =|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ So , to prove both $f_k$ are constant , it suffice to prove that following statement :
$g_1 , ... , g_n$ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ and $g_1+...+g_n$ equal to a constant $C$ , $|g_1|+...+|g_n|$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then each of $g_k$ is constant.

Can we show this ?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Why "both"? Do you only consider $n=2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 23 at 0:53










  • $begingroup$
    @ Hagen von Eitzen Thanks for point out this , it should be "each" instead of "both" .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 23 at 1:11










  • $begingroup$
    I think I came up with a proof, but it depends if you know what a "subharmonic" function is ( and if my proof is correct :) ).
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Nemetz
    Jan 23 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/q/3064685.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 23 at 8:02
















1












$begingroup$


$f_1 , f_2 , ... , f_n $ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ , and also $$|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Can we prove that each of $f_k$ is constant ?

My attempt :

If $n=1$ , we can find a $theta$ such that $f_1' =f_1 e^{i theta}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then $f_1 ' $ is a constant so $f_1$ is a constant .



If $n gt 1$ , then we can find a sequence $theta_1 ,..., theta_n$ such that $f_1 e^{i theta_1} +...+ f_n e^{i theta_n}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Let $f_k'=e^{i theta_k} f_k$ , we find that $$|f_1'|+...+|f_k'| =|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ So , to prove both $f_k$ are constant , it suffice to prove that following statement :
$g_1 , ... , g_n$ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ and $g_1+...+g_n$ equal to a constant $C$ , $|g_1|+...+|g_n|$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then each of $g_k$ is constant.

Can we show this ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Why "both"? Do you only consider $n=2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 23 at 0:53










  • $begingroup$
    @ Hagen von Eitzen Thanks for point out this , it should be "each" instead of "both" .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 23 at 1:11










  • $begingroup$
    I think I came up with a proof, but it depends if you know what a "subharmonic" function is ( and if my proof is correct :) ).
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Nemetz
    Jan 23 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/q/3064685.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 23 at 8:02














1












1








1





$begingroup$


$f_1 , f_2 , ... , f_n $ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ , and also $$|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Can we prove that each of $f_k$ is constant ?

My attempt :

If $n=1$ , we can find a $theta$ such that $f_1' =f_1 e^{i theta}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then $f_1 ' $ is a constant so $f_1$ is a constant .



If $n gt 1$ , then we can find a sequence $theta_1 ,..., theta_n$ such that $f_1 e^{i theta_1} +...+ f_n e^{i theta_n}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Let $f_k'=e^{i theta_k} f_k$ , we find that $$|f_1'|+...+|f_k'| =|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ So , to prove both $f_k$ are constant , it suffice to prove that following statement :
$g_1 , ... , g_n$ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ and $g_1+...+g_n$ equal to a constant $C$ , $|g_1|+...+|g_n|$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then each of $g_k$ is constant.

Can we show this ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$f_1 , f_2 , ... , f_n $ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ , and also $$|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Can we prove that each of $f_k$ is constant ?

My attempt :

If $n=1$ , we can find a $theta$ such that $f_1' =f_1 e^{i theta}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then $f_1 ' $ is a constant so $f_1$ is a constant .



If $n gt 1$ , then we can find a sequence $theta_1 ,..., theta_n$ such that $f_1 e^{i theta_1} +...+ f_n e^{i theta_n}$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ . Let $f_k'=e^{i theta_k} f_k$ , we find that $$|f_1'|+...+|f_k'| =|f_1|+...+|f_n|$$ So , to prove both $f_k$ are constant , it suffice to prove that following statement :
$g_1 , ... , g_n$ is a sequence of holomorphic function in an open set $Omega$ and $g_1+...+g_n$ equal to a constant $C$ , $|g_1|+...+|g_n|$ attains its maximum in $Omega$ , then each of $g_k$ is constant.

Can we show this ?







complex-analysis






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 23 at 1:12







J.Guo

















asked Jan 23 at 0:21









J.GuoJ.Guo

4029




4029












  • $begingroup$
    Why "both"? Do you only consider $n=2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 23 at 0:53










  • $begingroup$
    @ Hagen von Eitzen Thanks for point out this , it should be "each" instead of "both" .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 23 at 1:11










  • $begingroup$
    I think I came up with a proof, but it depends if you know what a "subharmonic" function is ( and if my proof is correct :) ).
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Nemetz
    Jan 23 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/q/3064685.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 23 at 8:02


















  • $begingroup$
    Why "both"? Do you only consider $n=2$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 23 at 0:53










  • $begingroup$
    @ Hagen von Eitzen Thanks for point out this , it should be "each" instead of "both" .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 23 at 1:11










  • $begingroup$
    I think I came up with a proof, but it depends if you know what a "subharmonic" function is ( and if my proof is correct :) ).
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Nemetz
    Jan 23 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/q/3064685.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 23 at 8:02
















$begingroup$
Why "both"? Do you only consider $n=2$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 23 at 0:53




$begingroup$
Why "both"? Do you only consider $n=2$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 23 at 0:53












$begingroup$
@ Hagen von Eitzen Thanks for point out this , it should be "each" instead of "both" .
$endgroup$
– J.Guo
Jan 23 at 1:11




$begingroup$
@ Hagen von Eitzen Thanks for point out this , it should be "each" instead of "both" .
$endgroup$
– J.Guo
Jan 23 at 1:11












$begingroup$
I think I came up with a proof, but it depends if you know what a "subharmonic" function is ( and if my proof is correct :) ).
$endgroup$
– Sean Nemetz
Jan 23 at 3:36




$begingroup$
I think I came up with a proof, but it depends if you know what a "subharmonic" function is ( and if my proof is correct :) ).
$endgroup$
– Sean Nemetz
Jan 23 at 3:36












$begingroup$
Related: math.stackexchange.com/q/3064685.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 23 at 8:02




$begingroup$
Related: math.stackexchange.com/q/3064685.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 23 at 8:02










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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2












$begingroup$

Proof for $n=2$. (The argument actually works for any $n$). Suppose $a in Omega$ and $|f(a)|+|g(a)|≥|f(z)|+|g(z)| ∀z∈Ω$. Replace $f$ by $e^{is}f$ and $g$ by $e^{it}g$ where real numbers $s$ and $t$ are chosen such that $e^{is}f(a)$ and $e^{it}g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). This reduces the proof to the case when $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). We now have $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))$. Maximum Modulus principle applied to $e^{f+g}$ shows that $e^{f+g}$, and hence $f+g$ is a constant (because $|e^{f+g}|$ attains its maximum in the domain). Now $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))=Re(f(a)+g(a))$ which implies that equality holds throughout. In particular $|f(z)|=Re(f(z))$ and $|g(z)|=Re(g(z)) ∀z$ which implies that $f$ and $g$ are constants.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    We have that $h(z)= sum_{i+1}^n |f_i|$ is a subharmonic function. So it obeys the maximum modulus principle. Hence, $h$ is a constant. If we take $h_j= sum_{i neq j } |f_i|$, we see that $|h_j| leq |h|$ for each $j$. If an $f_j$ has a zero in our domain, notice that $h_j$ attains its maximum as well. This would imply that $f_j equiv 0$ in our domain. So, if we suppose each $f_j$ is non-constant and non-zero in our domain, we have that each $f_j = e^{g_j(z)}$ for some analytic function $g_j$ on our domain. This reduces $h=sum_{i=1}^n e^{Re(g_j(z)}$. Since each $g_j(z)$ is non-constant, by the open mapping theorem, we can take a $z_0$ in our domain contained in an open set $U_j$ such that each $U_j$ contain infinitely many points, $z$, such that $e^{Re(g_j(z)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ . Since we only have finitely many $U_j$, we may take their intersection to be $U$ and select a point $w in U$ such that $e^{Re(g_j(w)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ for each $j$. This gives us $h(w) < h(z_0)$ - a contradiction.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your answer . I can prove $h$ is a constant by another way , but how to see that "If $f_j$ has a zero in our domain , $h_j$ attains its maximum" .
      $endgroup$
      – J.Guo
      Jan 23 at 15:51






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      evaluating at the zero makes $h_j=h$ there.
      $endgroup$
      – Sean Nemetz
      Jan 23 at 16:02











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

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    2












    $begingroup$

    Proof for $n=2$. (The argument actually works for any $n$). Suppose $a in Omega$ and $|f(a)|+|g(a)|≥|f(z)|+|g(z)| ∀z∈Ω$. Replace $f$ by $e^{is}f$ and $g$ by $e^{it}g$ where real numbers $s$ and $t$ are chosen such that $e^{is}f(a)$ and $e^{it}g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). This reduces the proof to the case when $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). We now have $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))$. Maximum Modulus principle applied to $e^{f+g}$ shows that $e^{f+g}$, and hence $f+g$ is a constant (because $|e^{f+g}|$ attains its maximum in the domain). Now $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))=Re(f(a)+g(a))$ which implies that equality holds throughout. In particular $|f(z)|=Re(f(z))$ and $|g(z)|=Re(g(z)) ∀z$ which implies that $f$ and $g$ are constants.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      Proof for $n=2$. (The argument actually works for any $n$). Suppose $a in Omega$ and $|f(a)|+|g(a)|≥|f(z)|+|g(z)| ∀z∈Ω$. Replace $f$ by $e^{is}f$ and $g$ by $e^{it}g$ where real numbers $s$ and $t$ are chosen such that $e^{is}f(a)$ and $e^{it}g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). This reduces the proof to the case when $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). We now have $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))$. Maximum Modulus principle applied to $e^{f+g}$ shows that $e^{f+g}$, and hence $f+g$ is a constant (because $|e^{f+g}|$ attains its maximum in the domain). Now $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))=Re(f(a)+g(a))$ which implies that equality holds throughout. In particular $|f(z)|=Re(f(z))$ and $|g(z)|=Re(g(z)) ∀z$ which implies that $f$ and $g$ are constants.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Proof for $n=2$. (The argument actually works for any $n$). Suppose $a in Omega$ and $|f(a)|+|g(a)|≥|f(z)|+|g(z)| ∀z∈Ω$. Replace $f$ by $e^{is}f$ and $g$ by $e^{it}g$ where real numbers $s$ and $t$ are chosen such that $e^{is}f(a)$ and $e^{it}g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). This reduces the proof to the case when $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). We now have $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))$. Maximum Modulus principle applied to $e^{f+g}$ shows that $e^{f+g}$, and hence $f+g$ is a constant (because $|e^{f+g}|$ attains its maximum in the domain). Now $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))=Re(f(a)+g(a))$ which implies that equality holds throughout. In particular $|f(z)|=Re(f(z))$ and $|g(z)|=Re(g(z)) ∀z$ which implies that $f$ and $g$ are constants.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Proof for $n=2$. (The argument actually works for any $n$). Suppose $a in Omega$ and $|f(a)|+|g(a)|≥|f(z)|+|g(z)| ∀z∈Ω$. Replace $f$ by $e^{is}f$ and $g$ by $e^{it}g$ where real numbers $s$ and $t$ are chosen such that $e^{is}f(a)$ and $e^{it}g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). This reduces the proof to the case when $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ both belong to [0,∞). We now have $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))$. Maximum Modulus principle applied to $e^{f+g}$ shows that $e^{f+g}$, and hence $f+g$ is a constant (because $|e^{f+g}|$ attains its maximum in the domain). Now $f(a)+g(a)≥|f(z)|+|g(z)|≥Ref(z)+Reg(z)=Re(f(z)+g(z))=Re(f(a)+g(a))$ which implies that equality holds throughout. In particular $|f(z)|=Re(f(z))$ and $|g(z)|=Re(g(z)) ∀z$ which implies that $f$ and $g$ are constants.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 23 at 23:05

























        answered Jan 23 at 6:30









        Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

        63.7k42464




        63.7k42464























            1












            $begingroup$

            We have that $h(z)= sum_{i+1}^n |f_i|$ is a subharmonic function. So it obeys the maximum modulus principle. Hence, $h$ is a constant. If we take $h_j= sum_{i neq j } |f_i|$, we see that $|h_j| leq |h|$ for each $j$. If an $f_j$ has a zero in our domain, notice that $h_j$ attains its maximum as well. This would imply that $f_j equiv 0$ in our domain. So, if we suppose each $f_j$ is non-constant and non-zero in our domain, we have that each $f_j = e^{g_j(z)}$ for some analytic function $g_j$ on our domain. This reduces $h=sum_{i=1}^n e^{Re(g_j(z)}$. Since each $g_j(z)$ is non-constant, by the open mapping theorem, we can take a $z_0$ in our domain contained in an open set $U_j$ such that each $U_j$ contain infinitely many points, $z$, such that $e^{Re(g_j(z)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ . Since we only have finitely many $U_j$, we may take their intersection to be $U$ and select a point $w in U$ such that $e^{Re(g_j(w)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ for each $j$. This gives us $h(w) < h(z_0)$ - a contradiction.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for your answer . I can prove $h$ is a constant by another way , but how to see that "If $f_j$ has a zero in our domain , $h_j$ attains its maximum" .
              $endgroup$
              – J.Guo
              Jan 23 at 15:51






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              evaluating at the zero makes $h_j=h$ there.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Nemetz
              Jan 23 at 16:02
















            1












            $begingroup$

            We have that $h(z)= sum_{i+1}^n |f_i|$ is a subharmonic function. So it obeys the maximum modulus principle. Hence, $h$ is a constant. If we take $h_j= sum_{i neq j } |f_i|$, we see that $|h_j| leq |h|$ for each $j$. If an $f_j$ has a zero in our domain, notice that $h_j$ attains its maximum as well. This would imply that $f_j equiv 0$ in our domain. So, if we suppose each $f_j$ is non-constant and non-zero in our domain, we have that each $f_j = e^{g_j(z)}$ for some analytic function $g_j$ on our domain. This reduces $h=sum_{i=1}^n e^{Re(g_j(z)}$. Since each $g_j(z)$ is non-constant, by the open mapping theorem, we can take a $z_0$ in our domain contained in an open set $U_j$ such that each $U_j$ contain infinitely many points, $z$, such that $e^{Re(g_j(z)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ . Since we only have finitely many $U_j$, we may take their intersection to be $U$ and select a point $w in U$ such that $e^{Re(g_j(w)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ for each $j$. This gives us $h(w) < h(z_0)$ - a contradiction.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for your answer . I can prove $h$ is a constant by another way , but how to see that "If $f_j$ has a zero in our domain , $h_j$ attains its maximum" .
              $endgroup$
              – J.Guo
              Jan 23 at 15:51






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              evaluating at the zero makes $h_j=h$ there.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Nemetz
              Jan 23 at 16:02














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            We have that $h(z)= sum_{i+1}^n |f_i|$ is a subharmonic function. So it obeys the maximum modulus principle. Hence, $h$ is a constant. If we take $h_j= sum_{i neq j } |f_i|$, we see that $|h_j| leq |h|$ for each $j$. If an $f_j$ has a zero in our domain, notice that $h_j$ attains its maximum as well. This would imply that $f_j equiv 0$ in our domain. So, if we suppose each $f_j$ is non-constant and non-zero in our domain, we have that each $f_j = e^{g_j(z)}$ for some analytic function $g_j$ on our domain. This reduces $h=sum_{i=1}^n e^{Re(g_j(z)}$. Since each $g_j(z)$ is non-constant, by the open mapping theorem, we can take a $z_0$ in our domain contained in an open set $U_j$ such that each $U_j$ contain infinitely many points, $z$, such that $e^{Re(g_j(z)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ . Since we only have finitely many $U_j$, we may take their intersection to be $U$ and select a point $w in U$ such that $e^{Re(g_j(w)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ for each $j$. This gives us $h(w) < h(z_0)$ - a contradiction.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            We have that $h(z)= sum_{i+1}^n |f_i|$ is a subharmonic function. So it obeys the maximum modulus principle. Hence, $h$ is a constant. If we take $h_j= sum_{i neq j } |f_i|$, we see that $|h_j| leq |h|$ for each $j$. If an $f_j$ has a zero in our domain, notice that $h_j$ attains its maximum as well. This would imply that $f_j equiv 0$ in our domain. So, if we suppose each $f_j$ is non-constant and non-zero in our domain, we have that each $f_j = e^{g_j(z)}$ for some analytic function $g_j$ on our domain. This reduces $h=sum_{i=1}^n e^{Re(g_j(z)}$. Since each $g_j(z)$ is non-constant, by the open mapping theorem, we can take a $z_0$ in our domain contained in an open set $U_j$ such that each $U_j$ contain infinitely many points, $z$, such that $e^{Re(g_j(z)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ . Since we only have finitely many $U_j$, we may take their intersection to be $U$ and select a point $w in U$ such that $e^{Re(g_j(w)} < e^{Re(g_j(z_0)} $ for each $j$. This gives us $h(w) < h(z_0)$ - a contradiction.







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            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 23 at 15:09









            Sean NemetzSean Nemetz

            15419




            15419












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for your answer . I can prove $h$ is a constant by another way , but how to see that "If $f_j$ has a zero in our domain , $h_j$ attains its maximum" .
              $endgroup$
              – J.Guo
              Jan 23 at 15:51






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              evaluating at the zero makes $h_j=h$ there.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Nemetz
              Jan 23 at 16:02


















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for your answer . I can prove $h$ is a constant by another way , but how to see that "If $f_j$ has a zero in our domain , $h_j$ attains its maximum" .
              $endgroup$
              – J.Guo
              Jan 23 at 15:51






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              evaluating at the zero makes $h_j=h$ there.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Nemetz
              Jan 23 at 16:02
















            $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer . I can prove $h$ is a constant by another way , but how to see that "If $f_j$ has a zero in our domain , $h_j$ attains its maximum" .
            $endgroup$
            – J.Guo
            Jan 23 at 15:51




            $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer . I can prove $h$ is a constant by another way , but how to see that "If $f_j$ has a zero in our domain , $h_j$ attains its maximum" .
            $endgroup$
            – J.Guo
            Jan 23 at 15:51




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            evaluating at the zero makes $h_j=h$ there.
            $endgroup$
            – Sean Nemetz
            Jan 23 at 16:02




            $begingroup$
            evaluating at the zero makes $h_j=h$ there.
            $endgroup$
            – Sean Nemetz
            Jan 23 at 16:02


















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