Does the order of $2$ in $Z_p$ divide the order of $2$ in $Z_n$?












3












$begingroup$


Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.



Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?



Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.










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    3












    $begingroup$


    Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.



    Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?



    Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.



      Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?



      Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.



      Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?



      Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.







      group-theory number-theory elementary-number-theory finite-groups algebraic-number-theory






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      asked Jan 22 at 23:06









      Joep AwinitaJoep Awinita

      807




      807






















          3 Answers
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          4












          $begingroup$

          If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.



          This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
            $endgroup$
            – Mike
            Jan 23 at 0:00










          • $begingroup$
            @Mike Thanks, fixed.
            $endgroup$
            – rogerl
            Jan 23 at 0:04



















          1












          $begingroup$

          Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            Yes. More generally:




            If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.




            See a proof here.



            This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

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              active

              oldest

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              4












              $begingroup$

              If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.



              This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mike
                Jan 23 at 0:00










              • $begingroup$
                @Mike Thanks, fixed.
                $endgroup$
                – rogerl
                Jan 23 at 0:04
















              4












              $begingroup$

              If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.



              This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mike
                Jan 23 at 0:00










              • $begingroup$
                @Mike Thanks, fixed.
                $endgroup$
                – rogerl
                Jan 23 at 0:04














              4












              4








              4





              $begingroup$

              If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.



              This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.



              This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Jan 23 at 0:03

























              answered Jan 22 at 23:57









              rogerlrogerl

              18k22747




              18k22747












              • $begingroup$
                You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mike
                Jan 23 at 0:00










              • $begingroup$
                @Mike Thanks, fixed.
                $endgroup$
                – rogerl
                Jan 23 at 0:04


















              • $begingroup$
                You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mike
                Jan 23 at 0:00










              • $begingroup$
                @Mike Thanks, fixed.
                $endgroup$
                – rogerl
                Jan 23 at 0:04
















              $begingroup$
              You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
              $endgroup$
              – Mike
              Jan 23 at 0:00




              $begingroup$
              You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
              $endgroup$
              – Mike
              Jan 23 at 0:00












              $begingroup$
              @Mike Thanks, fixed.
              $endgroup$
              – rogerl
              Jan 23 at 0:04




              $begingroup$
              @Mike Thanks, fixed.
              $endgroup$
              – rogerl
              Jan 23 at 0:04











              1












              $begingroup$

              Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 23 at 0:06









                  MikeMike

                  4,256412




                  4,256412























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Yes. More generally:




                      If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.




                      See a proof here.



                      This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Yes. More generally:




                        If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.




                        See a proof here.



                        This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          Yes. More generally:




                          If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.




                          See a proof here.



                          This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Yes. More generally:




                          If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.




                          See a proof here.



                          This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 23 at 0:17









                          lhflhf

                          166k10171396




                          166k10171396






























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