Does the order of $2$ in $Z_p$ divide the order of $2$ in $Z_n$?
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Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.
Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?
Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.
group-theory number-theory elementary-number-theory finite-groups algebraic-number-theory
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$begingroup$
Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.
Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?
Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.
group-theory number-theory elementary-number-theory finite-groups algebraic-number-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.
Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?
Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.
group-theory number-theory elementary-number-theory finite-groups algebraic-number-theory
$endgroup$
Givens. Consider $(Z_n, times)$ the group of integers coprime with $n = pq$, where $p, q$ are prime numbers. Similarly, $(Z_p, times)$ is the group of integers ${0, 1, 2, ..., p - 1}$ coprime with $p$.
Question. Is it true that $o(2, p)$ divides $o(2, n)$, where $o(i, y)$ describes the order of $i$ in $(Z_y, times)$? Why?
Remarks. I know the size of the group $Z_n$ is $varphi(n) = (p -1)(q - 1)$, the Euler totient function. I also know that $o(2, p) = p$ because $p$ is prime and every group of prime order is cyclic and any member of it is a generator --- I can prove that. But I don't really see if these facts I have are relevant to the question.
group-theory number-theory elementary-number-theory finite-groups algebraic-number-theory
group-theory number-theory elementary-number-theory finite-groups algebraic-number-theory
asked Jan 22 at 23:06
Joep AwinitaJoep Awinita
807
807
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3 Answers
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$begingroup$
If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.
This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
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– Mike
Jan 23 at 0:00
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@Mike Thanks, fixed.
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– rogerl
Jan 23 at 0:04
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$begingroup$
Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. More generally:
If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.
See a proof here.
This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
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active
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.
This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
$endgroup$
– Mike
Jan 23 at 0:00
$begingroup$
@Mike Thanks, fixed.
$endgroup$
– rogerl
Jan 23 at 0:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.
This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
$endgroup$
– Mike
Jan 23 at 0:00
$begingroup$
@Mike Thanks, fixed.
$endgroup$
– rogerl
Jan 23 at 0:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.
This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).
$endgroup$
If $2^kequiv 1mod{n}$, then also $2^kequiv 1mod{p}$, so that $k$ is a multiple of $o(2,p)$.
This applies in general: if $mmid n$, then $o(i,m)mid o(i,n)$ (as long as $i$ is prime to both $m$ and $n$).
edited Jan 23 at 0:03
answered Jan 22 at 23:57
rogerlrogerl
18k22747
18k22747
$begingroup$
You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
$endgroup$
– Mike
Jan 23 at 0:00
$begingroup$
@Mike Thanks, fixed.
$endgroup$
– rogerl
Jan 23 at 0:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
$endgroup$
– Mike
Jan 23 at 0:00
$begingroup$
@Mike Thanks, fixed.
$endgroup$
– rogerl
Jan 23 at 0:04
$begingroup$
You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
$endgroup$
– Mike
Jan 23 at 0:00
$begingroup$
You mean $2^k equiv 1$?
$endgroup$
– Mike
Jan 23 at 0:00
$begingroup$
@Mike Thanks, fixed.
$endgroup$
– rogerl
Jan 23 at 0:04
$begingroup$
@Mike Thanks, fixed.
$endgroup$
– rogerl
Jan 23 at 0:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.
$endgroup$
Yes. In fact we can establish something more general. Let $r$ be any positive integer and let $p_1,ldots, p_r$ be any $r$ primes. Next let $a$ an integer. Suppose $a^l equiv 1$ $mod p_1p_2ldots p_r$ (and note that $a$ does not have to be 2). Then $a^l = 1 + m(p_1 ldots p_r)$ $=1 +(mp_2p_3 ldots)p_1$ which implies that $a^l equiv 1$ mod $p_1$.
answered Jan 23 at 0:06
MikeMike
4,256412
4,256412
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. More generally:
If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.
See a proof here.
This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. More generally:
If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.
See a proof here.
This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. More generally:
If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.
See a proof here.
This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.
$endgroup$
Yes. More generally:
If $phi: G to G'$ is a group homomorphism and $g in G$ has finite order, then $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$.
See a proof here.
This general fact applies to your case because $x bmod n mapsto x bmod d$ defines a group homomorphism $mathbb Z_n^times to mathbb Z_d^times$ if $d$ divides $n$.
answered Jan 23 at 0:17
lhflhf
166k10171396
166k10171396
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