Is there a right triangle with angles $A$, $B$, $C$ such that $A^2+B^2=C^2$?












2












$begingroup$


A right angle triangle with vertices $A,B,C$ ($C$ is the right angle), and the sides opposite to the vertices are $a,b,c$, respectively.



We know that this triangle (and any right angle triangle) has the following properties:




  • $a^2+b^2=c^2$


  • $a+b>c$


  • $a+c>b$


  • $b+c>a$


  • $A+B+C=pi$



Can we add the property that $A^2+B^2=C^2$ such that this triangle can be formed? If yes, how to find an example for such triangle, finding $A,B,C,a,b,c$?










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$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    A right angle triangle with vertices $A,B,C$ ($C$ is the right angle), and the sides opposite to the vertices are $a,b,c$, respectively.



    We know that this triangle (and any right angle triangle) has the following properties:




    • $a^2+b^2=c^2$


    • $a+b>c$


    • $a+c>b$


    • $b+c>a$


    • $A+B+C=pi$



    Can we add the property that $A^2+B^2=C^2$ such that this triangle can be formed? If yes, how to find an example for such triangle, finding $A,B,C,a,b,c$?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      A right angle triangle with vertices $A,B,C$ ($C$ is the right angle), and the sides opposite to the vertices are $a,b,c$, respectively.



      We know that this triangle (and any right angle triangle) has the following properties:




      • $a^2+b^2=c^2$


      • $a+b>c$


      • $a+c>b$


      • $b+c>a$


      • $A+B+C=pi$



      Can we add the property that $A^2+B^2=C^2$ such that this triangle can be formed? If yes, how to find an example for such triangle, finding $A,B,C,a,b,c$?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      A right angle triangle with vertices $A,B,C$ ($C$ is the right angle), and the sides opposite to the vertices are $a,b,c$, respectively.



      We know that this triangle (and any right angle triangle) has the following properties:




      • $a^2+b^2=c^2$


      • $a+b>c$


      • $a+c>b$


      • $b+c>a$


      • $A+B+C=pi$



      Can we add the property that $A^2+B^2=C^2$ such that this triangle can be formed? If yes, how to find an example for such triangle, finding $A,B,C,a,b,c$?







      geometry trigonometry triangle geometric-inequalities






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      edited Jan 15 at 8:32









      Blue

      48.2k870153




      48.2k870153










      asked Jan 15 at 8:28









      Hussain-AlqatariHussain-Alqatari

      3217




      3217






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Because it's a right triangle, $C=frac{pi}{2}=A+B$. That means that
          $$C^2=(A+B)^2=A^2+B^2+2AB > A^2+B^2$$
          So no, it isn't possible. We can come close as we approach angles of $0,90^circ,90^circ$, but that's degenerate - it's not a triangle.






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            2












            $begingroup$

            We have $C=pi/2,B=pi/2-A$, so we need to solve the quadratic equation$$A^2+(pi/2-A)^2=pi^2/4\implies2A^2=pi A$$giving $A=0,pi/2$ which is not possible.






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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              active

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              active

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              5












              $begingroup$

              Because it's a right triangle, $C=frac{pi}{2}=A+B$. That means that
              $$C^2=(A+B)^2=A^2+B^2+2AB > A^2+B^2$$
              So no, it isn't possible. We can come close as we approach angles of $0,90^circ,90^circ$, but that's degenerate - it's not a triangle.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                5












                $begingroup$

                Because it's a right triangle, $C=frac{pi}{2}=A+B$. That means that
                $$C^2=(A+B)^2=A^2+B^2+2AB > A^2+B^2$$
                So no, it isn't possible. We can come close as we approach angles of $0,90^circ,90^circ$, but that's degenerate - it's not a triangle.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  5












                  5








                  5





                  $begingroup$

                  Because it's a right triangle, $C=frac{pi}{2}=A+B$. That means that
                  $$C^2=(A+B)^2=A^2+B^2+2AB > A^2+B^2$$
                  So no, it isn't possible. We can come close as we approach angles of $0,90^circ,90^circ$, but that's degenerate - it's not a triangle.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Because it's a right triangle, $C=frac{pi}{2}=A+B$. That means that
                  $$C^2=(A+B)^2=A^2+B^2+2AB > A^2+B^2$$
                  So no, it isn't possible. We can come close as we approach angles of $0,90^circ,90^circ$, but that's degenerate - it's not a triangle.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 15 at 8:38









                  jmerryjmerry

                  6,712718




                  6,712718























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      We have $C=pi/2,B=pi/2-A$, so we need to solve the quadratic equation$$A^2+(pi/2-A)^2=pi^2/4\implies2A^2=pi A$$giving $A=0,pi/2$ which is not possible.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        We have $C=pi/2,B=pi/2-A$, so we need to solve the quadratic equation$$A^2+(pi/2-A)^2=pi^2/4\implies2A^2=pi A$$giving $A=0,pi/2$ which is not possible.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          We have $C=pi/2,B=pi/2-A$, so we need to solve the quadratic equation$$A^2+(pi/2-A)^2=pi^2/4\implies2A^2=pi A$$giving $A=0,pi/2$ which is not possible.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          We have $C=pi/2,B=pi/2-A$, so we need to solve the quadratic equation$$A^2+(pi/2-A)^2=pi^2/4\implies2A^2=pi A$$giving $A=0,pi/2$ which is not possible.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 15 at 8:39









                          Shubham JohriShubham Johri

                          5,082717




                          5,082717






























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