Evaluating $int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x) dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin...












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In order to compute, in an elementary way,



$displaystyle int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$



(see Evaluating $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$ )



i need to show, in a simple way, that:



$displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x) dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x)dx=dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$



$G$ being the Catalan constant.



The reason of my interest for this question is, if i am right, that this formula permits to find out a relation between integrals:



$displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx$



$displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$



$displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}big(ln(cos x)big)^2 dfrac{}{}dx$



and some constants.










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    $begingroup$


    In order to compute, in an elementary way,



    $displaystyle int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$



    (see Evaluating $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$ )



    i need to show, in a simple way, that:



    $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x) dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x)dx=dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$



    $G$ being the Catalan constant.



    The reason of my interest for this question is, if i am right, that this formula permits to find out a relation between integrals:



    $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx$



    $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$



    $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}big(ln(cos x)big)^2 dfrac{}{}dx$



    and some constants.










    share|cite|improve this question











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      4








      4


      1



      $begingroup$


      In order to compute, in an elementary way,



      $displaystyle int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$



      (see Evaluating $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$ )



      i need to show, in a simple way, that:



      $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x) dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x)dx=dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$



      $G$ being the Catalan constant.



      The reason of my interest for this question is, if i am right, that this formula permits to find out a relation between integrals:



      $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx$



      $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$



      $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}big(ln(cos x)big)^2 dfrac{}{}dx$



      and some constants.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      In order to compute, in an elementary way,



      $displaystyle int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$



      (see Evaluating $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$ )



      i need to show, in a simple way, that:



      $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x) dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x)dx=dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$



      $G$ being the Catalan constant.



      The reason of my interest for this question is, if i am right, that this formula permits to find out a relation between integrals:



      $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx$



      $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$



      $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}big(ln(cos x)big)^2 dfrac{}{}dx$



      and some constants.







      integration definite-integrals






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 15 at 13:23









      Lorenzo B.

      1,8402520




      1,8402520










      asked Jul 6 '16 at 11:32









      FDPFDP

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      5,32211524






















          3 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Using Simpsons rule we know
          $$cos(x)-sin(x)=sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$ and
          $$cos(x)+sin(x)=sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$



          Plugging this in the original integrals yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(cos(x)right)mathrm{d}x-
          int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x$$



          Splitting the logarithms and rearranging yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x+\
          +left(int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x right)$$



          The first part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x = ln(sqrt{2})G=frac{Gln(2)}{2}$$



          and because $$int_0^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=int_0^bf(b-x)mathrm{d}x$$
          the second part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x=0$$






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          • $begingroup$
            Very nice ! Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 20:07



















          1












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          begin{align}
          I&:=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          & quadtext{setting}; x=frac {pi}4-y; text{in the first integral gives}\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(frac {pi}2-yright)right)lnleft(cosleft(frac {pi}2-frac {pi}4-yright)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(yright)right)lnleft(sinleft(y+frac {pi}4right)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sin xright)right)lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right) - left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)right)ln(sin x);dx\
          &=ln(sqrt{2})int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx\
          &=dfrac{ln 2}{2}G\
          end{align}
          It remains to prove that $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx=G$.

          This is detailed around $(16)$ in this interesting paper by Jameson and Lord or using :
          begin{align}
          int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x),dx&=int_{tfrac{pi}{4}}^{tfrac{pi}{2}}lnleft(sin xright),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(tan x),dx\
          &=-int_0^1frac{ln t}{1+t^2},dt,quadtext{integrated by parts}\
          &=-left.ln(t);arctan(t)right|_0^1+int_0^1frac{arctan(t)}{t},dt\
          &=int_0^1sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n}}{2n+1},dt\
          &=left.sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)^2}right|_0^1\
          &=G\
          end{align}






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          • $begingroup$
            Thank you ! I was expecting such tricky proof. To say the truth i was close to find it. I hope it will help me to terminate my very lengthy computation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 19:57












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the link to this paper.
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:51



















          0












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          Relationship between the proposed integrals.



          $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$-$displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=-frac{3pi}{16}ln^2{2}+dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$






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          • $begingroup$
            Have you an elementary proof of this?
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:54












          • $begingroup$
            Anyway I think i don't need such precise value to compute $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:57










          • $begingroup$
            I think i see how to prove this. It relies on the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ using Simpson's rule and some properties of $cos$ and $sin$. Thank you, it will simplify my computation :)
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 23:37










          • $begingroup$
            Consider $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x^2)^2}{1+x^2}dx$ $$x=frac{1-y}{1+y}$$ we obtain the relationship
            $endgroup$
            – user178256
            Jul 7 '16 at 6:16










          • $begingroup$
            Direct computation using the change of variable $x=tan(y)$ is ok too. it leads, if i'm correct to the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ but to make the things easier you need to substract to both integrals $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x)^2dx$. Thanks again, i haven't noticed this relation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 7 '16 at 8:29













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          3 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Using Simpsons rule we know
          $$cos(x)-sin(x)=sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$ and
          $$cos(x)+sin(x)=sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$



          Plugging this in the original integrals yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(cos(x)right)mathrm{d}x-
          int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x$$



          Splitting the logarithms and rearranging yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x+\
          +left(int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x right)$$



          The first part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x = ln(sqrt{2})G=frac{Gln(2)}{2}$$



          and because $$int_0^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=int_0^bf(b-x)mathrm{d}x$$
          the second part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x=0$$






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          • $begingroup$
            Very nice ! Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 20:07
















          5












          $begingroup$

          Using Simpsons rule we know
          $$cos(x)-sin(x)=sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$ and
          $$cos(x)+sin(x)=sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$



          Plugging this in the original integrals yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(cos(x)right)mathrm{d}x-
          int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x$$



          Splitting the logarithms and rearranging yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x+\
          +left(int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x right)$$



          The first part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x = ln(sqrt{2})G=frac{Gln(2)}{2}$$



          and because $$int_0^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=int_0^bf(b-x)mathrm{d}x$$
          the second part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x=0$$






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          • $begingroup$
            Very nice ! Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 20:07














          5












          5








          5





          $begingroup$

          Using Simpsons rule we know
          $$cos(x)-sin(x)=sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$ and
          $$cos(x)+sin(x)=sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$



          Plugging this in the original integrals yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(cos(x)right)mathrm{d}x-
          int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x$$



          Splitting the logarithms and rearranging yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x+\
          +left(int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x right)$$



          The first part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x = ln(sqrt{2})G=frac{Gln(2)}{2}$$



          and because $$int_0^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=int_0^bf(b-x)mathrm{d}x$$
          the second part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x=0$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Using Simpsons rule we know
          $$cos(x)-sin(x)=sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$ and
          $$cos(x)+sin(x)=sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)$$



          Plugging this in the original integrals yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(cos(x)right)mathrm{d}x-
          int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2}cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-xright)right)lnleft(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x$$



          Splitting the logarithms and rearranging yields:
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x+\
          +left(int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x right)$$



          The first part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}ln(sqrt{2})left(ln(cos(x))-ln(sin(x)right)mathrm{d}x = ln(sqrt{2})G=frac{Gln(2)}{2}$$



          and because $$int_0^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=int_0^bf(b-x)mathrm{d}x$$
          the second part yields
          $$int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(cos(x)) mathrm{d}x-int_0^{frac{pi}{4}}lnleft(cosleft(frac{pi}{4}-x right)right)ln(sin(x)) mathrm{d}x=0$$







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          edited Jul 6 '16 at 19:30

























          answered Jul 6 '16 at 18:52









          Erik JurriënErik Jurriën

          29617




          29617












          • $begingroup$
            Very nice ! Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 20:07


















          • $begingroup$
            Very nice ! Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 20:07
















          $begingroup$
          Very nice ! Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 20:07




          $begingroup$
          Very nice ! Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 20:07











          1












          $begingroup$

          begin{align}
          I&:=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          & quadtext{setting}; x=frac {pi}4-y; text{in the first integral gives}\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(frac {pi}2-yright)right)lnleft(cosleft(frac {pi}2-frac {pi}4-yright)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(yright)right)lnleft(sinleft(y+frac {pi}4right)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sin xright)right)lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right) - left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)right)ln(sin x);dx\
          &=ln(sqrt{2})int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx\
          &=dfrac{ln 2}{2}G\
          end{align}
          It remains to prove that $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx=G$.

          This is detailed around $(16)$ in this interesting paper by Jameson and Lord or using :
          begin{align}
          int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x),dx&=int_{tfrac{pi}{4}}^{tfrac{pi}{2}}lnleft(sin xright),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(tan x),dx\
          &=-int_0^1frac{ln t}{1+t^2},dt,quadtext{integrated by parts}\
          &=-left.ln(t);arctan(t)right|_0^1+int_0^1frac{arctan(t)}{t},dt\
          &=int_0^1sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n}}{2n+1},dt\
          &=left.sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)^2}right|_0^1\
          &=G\
          end{align}






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            Thank you ! I was expecting such tricky proof. To say the truth i was close to find it. I hope it will help me to terminate my very lengthy computation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 19:57












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the link to this paper.
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:51
















          1












          $begingroup$

          begin{align}
          I&:=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          & quadtext{setting}; x=frac {pi}4-y; text{in the first integral gives}\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(frac {pi}2-yright)right)lnleft(cosleft(frac {pi}2-frac {pi}4-yright)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(yright)right)lnleft(sinleft(y+frac {pi}4right)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sin xright)right)lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right) - left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)right)ln(sin x);dx\
          &=ln(sqrt{2})int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx\
          &=dfrac{ln 2}{2}G\
          end{align}
          It remains to prove that $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx=G$.

          This is detailed around $(16)$ in this interesting paper by Jameson and Lord or using :
          begin{align}
          int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x),dx&=int_{tfrac{pi}{4}}^{tfrac{pi}{2}}lnleft(sin xright),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(tan x),dx\
          &=-int_0^1frac{ln t}{1+t^2},dt,quadtext{integrated by parts}\
          &=-left.ln(t);arctan(t)right|_0^1+int_0^1frac{arctan(t)}{t},dt\
          &=int_0^1sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n}}{2n+1},dt\
          &=left.sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)^2}right|_0^1\
          &=G\
          end{align}






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you ! I was expecting such tricky proof. To say the truth i was close to find it. I hope it will help me to terminate my very lengthy computation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 19:57












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the link to this paper.
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:51














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          begin{align}
          I&:=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          & quadtext{setting}; x=frac {pi}4-y; text{in the first integral gives}\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(frac {pi}2-yright)right)lnleft(cosleft(frac {pi}2-frac {pi}4-yright)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(yright)right)lnleft(sinleft(y+frac {pi}4right)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sin xright)right)lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right) - left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)right)ln(sin x);dx\
          &=ln(sqrt{2})int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx\
          &=dfrac{ln 2}{2}G\
          end{align}
          It remains to prove that $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx=G$.

          This is detailed around $(16)$ in this interesting paper by Jameson and Lord or using :
          begin{align}
          int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x),dx&=int_{tfrac{pi}{4}}^{tfrac{pi}{2}}lnleft(sin xright),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(tan x),dx\
          &=-int_0^1frac{ln t}{1+t^2},dt,quadtext{integrated by parts}\
          &=-left.ln(t);arctan(t)right|_0^1+int_0^1frac{arctan(t)}{t},dt\
          &=int_0^1sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n}}{2n+1},dt\
          &=left.sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)^2}right|_0^1\
          &=G\
          end{align}






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          begin{align}
          I&:=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x-sin x)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x+sin x)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(cos x),dx - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          & quadtext{setting}; x=frac {pi}4-y; text{in the first integral gives}\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},cosleft(frac {pi}2-yright)right)lnleft(cosleft(frac {pi}2-frac {pi}4-yright)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(yright)right)lnleft(sinleft(y+frac {pi}4right)right),dy - int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sqrt{2},sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sin xright)right)lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right) - left(ln(sqrt{2})+lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)right)ln(sin x);dx\
          &=ln(sqrt{2})int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx\
          &=dfrac{ln 2}{2}G\
          end{align}
          It remains to prove that $displaystyle int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x);dx=G$.

          This is detailed around $(16)$ in this interesting paper by Jameson and Lord or using :
          begin{align}
          int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}lnleft(sinleft(x+frac {pi}4right)right)-ln(sin x),dx&=int_{tfrac{pi}{4}}^{tfrac{pi}{2}}lnleft(sin xright),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(cos x),dx-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(sin x),dx\
          &=-int_0^{tfrac{pi}{4}}ln(tan x),dx\
          &=-int_0^1frac{ln t}{1+t^2},dt,quadtext{integrated by parts}\
          &=-left.ln(t);arctan(t)right|_0^1+int_0^1frac{arctan(t)}{t},dt\
          &=int_0^1sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n}}{2n+1},dt\
          &=left.sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{t^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)^2}right|_0^1\
          &=G\
          end{align}







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 6 '16 at 23:16

























          answered Jul 6 '16 at 18:53









          Raymond ManzoniRaymond Manzoni

          37.1k563117




          37.1k563117












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you ! I was expecting such tricky proof. To say the truth i was close to find it. I hope it will help me to terminate my very lengthy computation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 19:57












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the link to this paper.
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:51


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you ! I was expecting such tricky proof. To say the truth i was close to find it. I hope it will help me to terminate my very lengthy computation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 19:57












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the link to this paper.
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:51
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you ! I was expecting such tricky proof. To say the truth i was close to find it. I hope it will help me to terminate my very lengthy computation
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 19:57






          $begingroup$
          Thank you ! I was expecting such tricky proof. To say the truth i was close to find it. I hope it will help me to terminate my very lengthy computation
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 19:57














          $begingroup$
          Thanks for the link to this paper.
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 21:51




          $begingroup$
          Thanks for the link to this paper.
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 21:51











          0












          $begingroup$

          Relationship between the proposed integrals.



          $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$-$displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=-frac{3pi}{16}ln^2{2}+dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Have you an elementary proof of this?
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:54












          • $begingroup$
            Anyway I think i don't need such precise value to compute $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:57










          • $begingroup$
            I think i see how to prove this. It relies on the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ using Simpson's rule and some properties of $cos$ and $sin$. Thank you, it will simplify my computation :)
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 23:37










          • $begingroup$
            Consider $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x^2)^2}{1+x^2}dx$ $$x=frac{1-y}{1+y}$$ we obtain the relationship
            $endgroup$
            – user178256
            Jul 7 '16 at 6:16










          • $begingroup$
            Direct computation using the change of variable $x=tan(y)$ is ok too. it leads, if i'm correct to the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ but to make the things easier you need to substract to both integrals $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x)^2dx$. Thanks again, i haven't noticed this relation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 7 '16 at 8:29


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Relationship between the proposed integrals.



          $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$-$displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=-frac{3pi}{16}ln^2{2}+dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Have you an elementary proof of this?
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:54












          • $begingroup$
            Anyway I think i don't need such precise value to compute $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:57










          • $begingroup$
            I think i see how to prove this. It relies on the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ using Simpson's rule and some properties of $cos$ and $sin$. Thank you, it will simplify my computation :)
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 23:37










          • $begingroup$
            Consider $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x^2)^2}{1+x^2}dx$ $$x=frac{1-y}{1+y}$$ we obtain the relationship
            $endgroup$
            – user178256
            Jul 7 '16 at 6:16










          • $begingroup$
            Direct computation using the change of variable $x=tan(y)$ is ok too. it leads, if i'm correct to the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ but to make the things easier you need to substract to both integrals $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x)^2dx$. Thanks again, i haven't noticed this relation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 7 '16 at 8:29
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Relationship between the proposed integrals.



          $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$-$displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=-frac{3pi}{16}ln^2{2}+dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Relationship between the proposed integrals.



          $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)^2}{1+x^2}dx$-$displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x)ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=-frac{3pi}{16}ln^2{2}+dfrac{Gln 2}{2}$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jul 6 '16 at 21:24









          user178256user178256

          2,1401832




          2,1401832












          • $begingroup$
            Have you an elementary proof of this?
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:54












          • $begingroup$
            Anyway I think i don't need such precise value to compute $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:57










          • $begingroup$
            I think i see how to prove this. It relies on the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ using Simpson's rule and some properties of $cos$ and $sin$. Thank you, it will simplify my computation :)
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 23:37










          • $begingroup$
            Consider $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x^2)^2}{1+x^2}dx$ $$x=frac{1-y}{1+y}$$ we obtain the relationship
            $endgroup$
            – user178256
            Jul 7 '16 at 6:16










          • $begingroup$
            Direct computation using the change of variable $x=tan(y)$ is ok too. it leads, if i'm correct to the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ but to make the things easier you need to substract to both integrals $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x)^2dx$. Thanks again, i haven't noticed this relation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 7 '16 at 8:29




















          • $begingroup$
            Have you an elementary proof of this?
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:54












          • $begingroup$
            Anyway I think i don't need such precise value to compute $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:57










          • $begingroup$
            I think i see how to prove this. It relies on the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ using Simpson's rule and some properties of $cos$ and $sin$. Thank you, it will simplify my computation :)
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 6 '16 at 23:37










          • $begingroup$
            Consider $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x^2)^2}{1+x^2}dx$ $$x=frac{1-y}{1+y}$$ we obtain the relationship
            $endgroup$
            – user178256
            Jul 7 '16 at 6:16










          • $begingroup$
            Direct computation using the change of variable $x=tan(y)$ is ok too. it leads, if i'm correct to the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ but to make the things easier you need to substract to both integrals $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x)^2dx$. Thanks again, i haven't noticed this relation
            $endgroup$
            – FDP
            Jul 7 '16 at 8:29


















          $begingroup$
          Have you an elementary proof of this?
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 21:54






          $begingroup$
          Have you an elementary proof of this?
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 21:54














          $begingroup$
          Anyway I think i don't need such precise value to compute $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 21:57




          $begingroup$
          Anyway I think i don't need such precise value to compute $int_0^1 frac{x arctan x log left( 1-x^2right)}{1+x^2}dx$
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 21:57












          $begingroup$
          I think i see how to prove this. It relies on the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ using Simpson's rule and some properties of $cos$ and $sin$. Thank you, it will simplify my computation :)
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 23:37




          $begingroup$
          I think i see how to prove this. It relies on the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ using Simpson's rule and some properties of $cos$ and $sin$. Thank you, it will simplify my computation :)
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 6 '16 at 23:37












          $begingroup$
          Consider $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x^2)^2}{1+x^2}dx$ $$x=frac{1-y}{1+y}$$ we obtain the relationship
          $endgroup$
          – user178256
          Jul 7 '16 at 6:16




          $begingroup$
          Consider $displaystyle int_0^1 dfrac{ln(1+x^2)^2}{1+x^2}dx$ $$x=frac{1-y}{1+y}$$ we obtain the relationship
          $endgroup$
          – user178256
          Jul 7 '16 at 6:16












          $begingroup$
          Direct computation using the change of variable $x=tan(y)$ is ok too. it leads, if i'm correct to the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ but to make the things easier you need to substract to both integrals $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x)^2dx$. Thanks again, i haven't noticed this relation
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 7 '16 at 8:29






          $begingroup$
          Direct computation using the change of variable $x=tan(y)$ is ok too. it leads, if i'm correct to the evaluation of $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x+sin x))^2dx$ but to make the things easier you need to substract to both integrals $int_0^{frac{pi}{4}} (ln(cos x)^2dx$. Thanks again, i haven't noticed this relation
          $endgroup$
          – FDP
          Jul 7 '16 at 8:29




















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