Suppose $ dim(M)<dim(N)$, can there be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold...












0














Diffeomorphisms are necessarily between manifolds of the same dimension. Imagine $f$ going from dimension $n$ to dimension $k$. If $n < k$ then $Df_x$ could never be surjective; and if $n > k$ then $Df_x$ could never be injective. In both cases, therefore, $Df_x$ fails to be a bijection.



The definition is-



$f : M → N$ is called a diffeomorphism if, in coordinate charts, it satisfies the definition above. More precisely: Pick any cover of $M$ by compatible coordinate charts and do the same for $N$. Let $φ$ and $ψ$ be charts on, respectively, $M$ and $N$, with $U$ and $V$ as, respectively, the images of $φ$ and $ψ$. The map $ψfφ^{-1} : U → V$ is then a diffeomorphism as in the definition above, whenever $f(φ^{-1}(U)) ⊂ ψ^{-1}(V).$



$ underline{text{My question:}}$



$(1)$ Can there exists a diffeomorphism between two manifolds of different dimensions?



$(2)$ Suppose $dim(M)<dim(N)$, can there be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$?



Help me










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  • 1




    1: Are you not satisfied with the explanation in your first paragraph as to why you can't have diffeomorphisms between manifolds of different dimensions? 2: Consider $M = mathbb R$, $N = mathbb R^2$ and $f : M to N$ sending $f(x) = (x,0)$.
    – Kenny Wong
    13 hours ago










  • @KennyWong, Yes I am satisfied but I still has the confusion regarding my question $(2)$. The map $f(x)=(x,0)$ is a diffeomorphism. So here be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$. Am I right?
    – M. A. SARKAR
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    @M.A.SARKAR Yes you're right (assuming you have $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^2$ or something similar).
    – 0x539
    13 hours ago


















0














Diffeomorphisms are necessarily between manifolds of the same dimension. Imagine $f$ going from dimension $n$ to dimension $k$. If $n < k$ then $Df_x$ could never be surjective; and if $n > k$ then $Df_x$ could never be injective. In both cases, therefore, $Df_x$ fails to be a bijection.



The definition is-



$f : M → N$ is called a diffeomorphism if, in coordinate charts, it satisfies the definition above. More precisely: Pick any cover of $M$ by compatible coordinate charts and do the same for $N$. Let $φ$ and $ψ$ be charts on, respectively, $M$ and $N$, with $U$ and $V$ as, respectively, the images of $φ$ and $ψ$. The map $ψfφ^{-1} : U → V$ is then a diffeomorphism as in the definition above, whenever $f(φ^{-1}(U)) ⊂ ψ^{-1}(V).$



$ underline{text{My question:}}$



$(1)$ Can there exists a diffeomorphism between two manifolds of different dimensions?



$(2)$ Suppose $dim(M)<dim(N)$, can there be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$?



Help me










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    1: Are you not satisfied with the explanation in your first paragraph as to why you can't have diffeomorphisms between manifolds of different dimensions? 2: Consider $M = mathbb R$, $N = mathbb R^2$ and $f : M to N$ sending $f(x) = (x,0)$.
    – Kenny Wong
    13 hours ago










  • @KennyWong, Yes I am satisfied but I still has the confusion regarding my question $(2)$. The map $f(x)=(x,0)$ is a diffeomorphism. So here be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$. Am I right?
    – M. A. SARKAR
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    @M.A.SARKAR Yes you're right (assuming you have $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^2$ or something similar).
    – 0x539
    13 hours ago
















0












0








0


1





Diffeomorphisms are necessarily between manifolds of the same dimension. Imagine $f$ going from dimension $n$ to dimension $k$. If $n < k$ then $Df_x$ could never be surjective; and if $n > k$ then $Df_x$ could never be injective. In both cases, therefore, $Df_x$ fails to be a bijection.



The definition is-



$f : M → N$ is called a diffeomorphism if, in coordinate charts, it satisfies the definition above. More precisely: Pick any cover of $M$ by compatible coordinate charts and do the same for $N$. Let $φ$ and $ψ$ be charts on, respectively, $M$ and $N$, with $U$ and $V$ as, respectively, the images of $φ$ and $ψ$. The map $ψfφ^{-1} : U → V$ is then a diffeomorphism as in the definition above, whenever $f(φ^{-1}(U)) ⊂ ψ^{-1}(V).$



$ underline{text{My question:}}$



$(1)$ Can there exists a diffeomorphism between two manifolds of different dimensions?



$(2)$ Suppose $dim(M)<dim(N)$, can there be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$?



Help me










share|cite|improve this question















Diffeomorphisms are necessarily between manifolds of the same dimension. Imagine $f$ going from dimension $n$ to dimension $k$. If $n < k$ then $Df_x$ could never be surjective; and if $n > k$ then $Df_x$ could never be injective. In both cases, therefore, $Df_x$ fails to be a bijection.



The definition is-



$f : M → N$ is called a diffeomorphism if, in coordinate charts, it satisfies the definition above. More precisely: Pick any cover of $M$ by compatible coordinate charts and do the same for $N$. Let $φ$ and $ψ$ be charts on, respectively, $M$ and $N$, with $U$ and $V$ as, respectively, the images of $φ$ and $ψ$. The map $ψfφ^{-1} : U → V$ is then a diffeomorphism as in the definition above, whenever $f(φ^{-1}(U)) ⊂ ψ^{-1}(V).$



$ underline{text{My question:}}$



$(1)$ Can there exists a diffeomorphism between two manifolds of different dimensions?



$(2)$ Suppose $dim(M)<dim(N)$, can there be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$?



Help me







differential-geometry diffeomorphism






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edited 13 hours ago









Davide Giraudo

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125k16150260










asked 14 hours ago









M. A. SARKAR

2,1901619




2,1901619








  • 1




    1: Are you not satisfied with the explanation in your first paragraph as to why you can't have diffeomorphisms between manifolds of different dimensions? 2: Consider $M = mathbb R$, $N = mathbb R^2$ and $f : M to N$ sending $f(x) = (x,0)$.
    – Kenny Wong
    13 hours ago










  • @KennyWong, Yes I am satisfied but I still has the confusion regarding my question $(2)$. The map $f(x)=(x,0)$ is a diffeomorphism. So here be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$. Am I right?
    – M. A. SARKAR
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    @M.A.SARKAR Yes you're right (assuming you have $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^2$ or something similar).
    – 0x539
    13 hours ago
















  • 1




    1: Are you not satisfied with the explanation in your first paragraph as to why you can't have diffeomorphisms between manifolds of different dimensions? 2: Consider $M = mathbb R$, $N = mathbb R^2$ and $f : M to N$ sending $f(x) = (x,0)$.
    – Kenny Wong
    13 hours ago










  • @KennyWong, Yes I am satisfied but I still has the confusion regarding my question $(2)$. The map $f(x)=(x,0)$ is a diffeomorphism. So here be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$. Am I right?
    – M. A. SARKAR
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    @M.A.SARKAR Yes you're right (assuming you have $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^2$ or something similar).
    – 0x539
    13 hours ago










1




1




1: Are you not satisfied with the explanation in your first paragraph as to why you can't have diffeomorphisms between manifolds of different dimensions? 2: Consider $M = mathbb R$, $N = mathbb R^2$ and $f : M to N$ sending $f(x) = (x,0)$.
– Kenny Wong
13 hours ago




1: Are you not satisfied with the explanation in your first paragraph as to why you can't have diffeomorphisms between manifolds of different dimensions? 2: Consider $M = mathbb R$, $N = mathbb R^2$ and $f : M to N$ sending $f(x) = (x,0)$.
– Kenny Wong
13 hours ago












@KennyWong, Yes I am satisfied but I still has the confusion regarding my question $(2)$. The map $f(x)=(x,0)$ is a diffeomorphism. So here be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$. Am I right?
– M. A. SARKAR
13 hours ago




@KennyWong, Yes I am satisfied but I still has the confusion regarding my question $(2)$. The map $f(x)=(x,0)$ is a diffeomorphism. So here be a diffeomorphism from manifold $M$ to a submanifold of the manifold $N$. Am I right?
– M. A. SARKAR
13 hours ago




1




1




@M.A.SARKAR Yes you're right (assuming you have $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^2$ or something similar).
– 0x539
13 hours ago






@M.A.SARKAR Yes you're right (assuming you have $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^2$ or something similar).
– 0x539
13 hours ago












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