Prove the identity for $tan3theta$












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Prove the identity for $$tan3theta= frac{3tantheta - tan^3 theta}{1-3tan^2 theta}$$




Using de Moivre's theorem I have found that:
$$cos3theta = 4cos^3theta - 3cos theta$$
$$sin 3theta = 3sin theta-4sin^3theta$$



therefore:
$$tan 3theta = frac{sin 3theta}{cos 3 theta}=frac{3sin theta-4sin^3theta}{4cos^3theta - 3cos theta}$$



To then try and get the whole expression in terms of $tantheta$ I multiplied top and bottom of the fraction by $(4cos^3theta)^{-1}$. This gave me the following but I'm not now sure how to finish it off



$$tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}$$










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Remember that $1=cos^2theta+sin^2theta$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 9 at 20:16










  • $begingroup$
    Alternatively, have you proven any identities relating $sec(theta)$ and $tan(theta)$? Because there's a whole bunch of $sec(theta)$s lying around that could do with being changed into $tan(theta)$s.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 9 at 20:20
















0












$begingroup$



Prove the identity for $$tan3theta= frac{3tantheta - tan^3 theta}{1-3tan^2 theta}$$




Using de Moivre's theorem I have found that:
$$cos3theta = 4cos^3theta - 3cos theta$$
$$sin 3theta = 3sin theta-4sin^3theta$$



therefore:
$$tan 3theta = frac{sin 3theta}{cos 3 theta}=frac{3sin theta-4sin^3theta}{4cos^3theta - 3cos theta}$$



To then try and get the whole expression in terms of $tantheta$ I multiplied top and bottom of the fraction by $(4cos^3theta)^{-1}$. This gave me the following but I'm not now sure how to finish it off



$$tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Remember that $1=cos^2theta+sin^2theta$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 9 at 20:16










  • $begingroup$
    Alternatively, have you proven any identities relating $sec(theta)$ and $tan(theta)$? Because there's a whole bunch of $sec(theta)$s lying around that could do with being changed into $tan(theta)$s.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 9 at 20:20














0












0








0





$begingroup$



Prove the identity for $$tan3theta= frac{3tantheta - tan^3 theta}{1-3tan^2 theta}$$




Using de Moivre's theorem I have found that:
$$cos3theta = 4cos^3theta - 3cos theta$$
$$sin 3theta = 3sin theta-4sin^3theta$$



therefore:
$$tan 3theta = frac{sin 3theta}{cos 3 theta}=frac{3sin theta-4sin^3theta}{4cos^3theta - 3cos theta}$$



To then try and get the whole expression in terms of $tantheta$ I multiplied top and bottom of the fraction by $(4cos^3theta)^{-1}$. This gave me the following but I'm not now sure how to finish it off



$$tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Prove the identity for $$tan3theta= frac{3tantheta - tan^3 theta}{1-3tan^2 theta}$$




Using de Moivre's theorem I have found that:
$$cos3theta = 4cos^3theta - 3cos theta$$
$$sin 3theta = 3sin theta-4sin^3theta$$



therefore:
$$tan 3theta = frac{sin 3theta}{cos 3 theta}=frac{3sin theta-4sin^3theta}{4cos^3theta - 3cos theta}$$



To then try and get the whole expression in terms of $tantheta$ I multiplied top and bottom of the fraction by $(4cos^3theta)^{-1}$. This gave me the following but I'm not now sure how to finish it off



$$tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}$$







trigonometry






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edited Jan 9 at 20:23









user376343

3,3583826




3,3583826










asked Jan 9 at 20:14









H.LinkhornH.Linkhorn

34213




34213








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Remember that $1=cos^2theta+sin^2theta$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 9 at 20:16










  • $begingroup$
    Alternatively, have you proven any identities relating $sec(theta)$ and $tan(theta)$? Because there's a whole bunch of $sec(theta)$s lying around that could do with being changed into $tan(theta)$s.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 9 at 20:20














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Remember that $1=cos^2theta+sin^2theta$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 9 at 20:16










  • $begingroup$
    Alternatively, have you proven any identities relating $sec(theta)$ and $tan(theta)$? Because there's a whole bunch of $sec(theta)$s lying around that could do with being changed into $tan(theta)$s.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 9 at 20:20








2




2




$begingroup$
Remember that $1=cos^2theta+sin^2theta$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 9 at 20:16




$begingroup$
Remember that $1=cos^2theta+sin^2theta$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 9 at 20:16












$begingroup$
Alternatively, have you proven any identities relating $sec(theta)$ and $tan(theta)$? Because there's a whole bunch of $sec(theta)$s lying around that could do with being changed into $tan(theta)$s.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 9 at 20:20




$begingroup$
Alternatively, have you proven any identities relating $sec(theta)$ and $tan(theta)$? Because there's a whole bunch of $sec(theta)$s lying around that could do with being changed into $tan(theta)$s.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 9 at 20:20










5 Answers
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0












$begingroup$

Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



Note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. That will fix up your numerator nicely. Using $sec^2 theta = 1 + tan^2theta$ directly (since $frac{costheta}{cos^3theta} = sec^2theta$) will similarly fix up the numerator, so what you have so far is equal to



$$frac{frac{3}{4}tantheta-frac{1}{4}tan^3theta}{frac{1}{4} - frac{3}{4}tan^2theta} = frac{3tantheta-tan^3theta}{1-3tan^2theta},$$



as required






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Use that $$tan(3x)=frac{tan(x)+tan(2x)}{1-tan(x)tan(2x)}$$ and then
    $$tan(x+x)=frac{2tan(x)}{1-tan^2(x)}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Oh sorry, thousand times!
      $endgroup$
      – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
      Jan 9 at 20:21



















    0












    $begingroup$

    You have achieved the $cos 3x$ and $sin 3x$ answers by matching the Real and Imaginary components to show them in terms of only $cos x$ and $sin x$ I presume, leading on from an earlier question.



    It should be a lot easier if you simply do exactly what you've done for the answers before matching the components






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      0












      $begingroup$

      A slightly different approach using de Moivre's theorem would be: notice that $1 + i tan theta = sec theta cdot e^{i theta}$. Therefore, cubing both sides, $(1 + i tan theta)^3 = sec^3 theta cdot e^{3 i theta}$. Now, if you take the "slope" of this complex number, i.e. the imaginary part divided by the real part, from the right hand side you see the result will be $tan(3theta)$. On the other hand, by binomial expansion,
      $$(1 + i tan theta)^3 = 1 + 3i tan theta - 3 tan^2 theta - i tan^3 theta = (1 - 3 tan^2 theta) + i (3 tan theta - tan^3 theta).$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        where did $1+i tantheta = sec theta times e^{itheta}$ come from?
        $endgroup$
        – H.Linkhorn
        Jan 9 at 20:30










      • $begingroup$
        @H.Linkhom You mean how to prove it, or how to come up with it? In the first case, just expand $e^{i theta} = cos theta + i sin theta$ and distribute. In the second case - it's just a common trick for working with $tan theta$. Maybe one motivation to come up with is: $tan theta$ represents the slope of a line at angle $theta$, and to create a complex number with "slope" $m$ you can just take $1 + im$.
        $endgroup$
        – Daniel Schepler
        Jan 9 at 20:35





















      0












      $begingroup$

      We have
      $$
      tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} =
      frac{frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
      frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta + 3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta + 3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
      frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta}{4cos^3theta} + frac{3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta}{4cos^3 theta} -frac{3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}
      $$

      and from there, the simplification is straightforward.






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        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes








        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        0












        $begingroup$

        Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



        Note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



        note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. That will fix up your numerator nicely. Using $sec^2 theta = 1 + tan^2theta$ directly (since $frac{costheta}{cos^3theta} = sec^2theta$) will similarly fix up the numerator, so what you have so far is equal to



        $$frac{frac{3}{4}tantheta-frac{1}{4}tan^3theta}{frac{1}{4} - frac{3}{4}tan^2theta} = frac{3tantheta-tan^3theta}{1-3tan^2theta},$$



        as required






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



          Note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



          note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. That will fix up your numerator nicely. Using $sec^2 theta = 1 + tan^2theta$ directly (since $frac{costheta}{cos^3theta} = sec^2theta$) will similarly fix up the numerator, so what you have so far is equal to



          $$frac{frac{3}{4}tantheta-frac{1}{4}tan^3theta}{frac{1}{4} - frac{3}{4}tan^2theta} = frac{3tantheta-tan^3theta}{1-3tan^2theta},$$



          as required






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$
















            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



            Note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



            note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. That will fix up your numerator nicely. Using $sec^2 theta = 1 + tan^2theta$ directly (since $frac{costheta}{cos^3theta} = sec^2theta$) will similarly fix up the numerator, so what you have so far is equal to



            $$frac{frac{3}{4}tantheta-frac{1}{4}tan^3theta}{frac{1}{4} - frac{3}{4}tan^2theta} = frac{3tantheta-tan^3theta}{1-3tan^2theta},$$



            as required






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



            Note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. Alternatively, to do it using what you've done so far, rather than applying the double-angle formula twice:



            note that $frac{sintheta}{cos^3theta} = tanthetasec^2theta = tantheta(1 + tan^2theta) = tantheta + tan^3theta$. That will fix up your numerator nicely. Using $sec^2 theta = 1 + tan^2theta$ directly (since $frac{costheta}{cos^3theta} = sec^2theta$) will similarly fix up the numerator, so what you have so far is equal to



            $$frac{frac{3}{4}tantheta-frac{1}{4}tan^3theta}{frac{1}{4} - frac{3}{4}tan^2theta} = frac{3tantheta-tan^3theta}{1-3tan^2theta},$$



            as required







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 9 at 20:29









            user3482749user3482749

            3,922418




            3,922418























                0












                $begingroup$

                Use that $$tan(3x)=frac{tan(x)+tan(2x)}{1-tan(x)tan(2x)}$$ and then
                $$tan(x+x)=frac{2tan(x)}{1-tan^2(x)}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$













                • $begingroup$
                  Oh sorry, thousand times!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
                  Jan 9 at 20:21
















                0












                $begingroup$

                Use that $$tan(3x)=frac{tan(x)+tan(2x)}{1-tan(x)tan(2x)}$$ and then
                $$tan(x+x)=frac{2tan(x)}{1-tan^2(x)}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$













                • $begingroup$
                  Oh sorry, thousand times!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
                  Jan 9 at 20:21














                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Use that $$tan(3x)=frac{tan(x)+tan(2x)}{1-tan(x)tan(2x)}$$ and then
                $$tan(x+x)=frac{2tan(x)}{1-tan^2(x)}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                Use that $$tan(3x)=frac{tan(x)+tan(2x)}{1-tan(x)tan(2x)}$$ and then
                $$tan(x+x)=frac{2tan(x)}{1-tan^2(x)}$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jan 9 at 20:20

























                answered Jan 9 at 20:19









                Dr. Sonnhard GraubnerDr. Sonnhard Graubner

                74k42865




                74k42865












                • $begingroup$
                  Oh sorry, thousand times!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
                  Jan 9 at 20:21


















                • $begingroup$
                  Oh sorry, thousand times!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
                  Jan 9 at 20:21
















                $begingroup$
                Oh sorry, thousand times!
                $endgroup$
                – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
                Jan 9 at 20:21




                $begingroup$
                Oh sorry, thousand times!
                $endgroup$
                – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
                Jan 9 at 20:21











                0












                $begingroup$

                You have achieved the $cos 3x$ and $sin 3x$ answers by matching the Real and Imaginary components to show them in terms of only $cos x$ and $sin x$ I presume, leading on from an earlier question.



                It should be a lot easier if you simply do exactly what you've done for the answers before matching the components






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  0












                  $begingroup$

                  You have achieved the $cos 3x$ and $sin 3x$ answers by matching the Real and Imaginary components to show them in terms of only $cos x$ and $sin x$ I presume, leading on from an earlier question.



                  It should be a lot easier if you simply do exactly what you've done for the answers before matching the components






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    0












                    0








                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    You have achieved the $cos 3x$ and $sin 3x$ answers by matching the Real and Imaginary components to show them in terms of only $cos x$ and $sin x$ I presume, leading on from an earlier question.



                    It should be a lot easier if you simply do exactly what you've done for the answers before matching the components






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    You have achieved the $cos 3x$ and $sin 3x$ answers by matching the Real and Imaginary components to show them in terms of only $cos x$ and $sin x$ I presume, leading on from an earlier question.



                    It should be a lot easier if you simply do exactly what you've done for the answers before matching the components







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 9 at 20:26







                    user624037






























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        A slightly different approach using de Moivre's theorem would be: notice that $1 + i tan theta = sec theta cdot e^{i theta}$. Therefore, cubing both sides, $(1 + i tan theta)^3 = sec^3 theta cdot e^{3 i theta}$. Now, if you take the "slope" of this complex number, i.e. the imaginary part divided by the real part, from the right hand side you see the result will be $tan(3theta)$. On the other hand, by binomial expansion,
                        $$(1 + i tan theta)^3 = 1 + 3i tan theta - 3 tan^2 theta - i tan^3 theta = (1 - 3 tan^2 theta) + i (3 tan theta - tan^3 theta).$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          where did $1+i tantheta = sec theta times e^{itheta}$ come from?
                          $endgroup$
                          – H.Linkhorn
                          Jan 9 at 20:30










                        • $begingroup$
                          @H.Linkhom You mean how to prove it, or how to come up with it? In the first case, just expand $e^{i theta} = cos theta + i sin theta$ and distribute. In the second case - it's just a common trick for working with $tan theta$. Maybe one motivation to come up with is: $tan theta$ represents the slope of a line at angle $theta$, and to create a complex number with "slope" $m$ you can just take $1 + im$.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Daniel Schepler
                          Jan 9 at 20:35


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        A slightly different approach using de Moivre's theorem would be: notice that $1 + i tan theta = sec theta cdot e^{i theta}$. Therefore, cubing both sides, $(1 + i tan theta)^3 = sec^3 theta cdot e^{3 i theta}$. Now, if you take the "slope" of this complex number, i.e. the imaginary part divided by the real part, from the right hand side you see the result will be $tan(3theta)$. On the other hand, by binomial expansion,
                        $$(1 + i tan theta)^3 = 1 + 3i tan theta - 3 tan^2 theta - i tan^3 theta = (1 - 3 tan^2 theta) + i (3 tan theta - tan^3 theta).$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          where did $1+i tantheta = sec theta times e^{itheta}$ come from?
                          $endgroup$
                          – H.Linkhorn
                          Jan 9 at 20:30










                        • $begingroup$
                          @H.Linkhom You mean how to prove it, or how to come up with it? In the first case, just expand $e^{i theta} = cos theta + i sin theta$ and distribute. In the second case - it's just a common trick for working with $tan theta$. Maybe one motivation to come up with is: $tan theta$ represents the slope of a line at angle $theta$, and to create a complex number with "slope" $m$ you can just take $1 + im$.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Daniel Schepler
                          Jan 9 at 20:35
















                        0












                        0








                        0





                        $begingroup$

                        A slightly different approach using de Moivre's theorem would be: notice that $1 + i tan theta = sec theta cdot e^{i theta}$. Therefore, cubing both sides, $(1 + i tan theta)^3 = sec^3 theta cdot e^{3 i theta}$. Now, if you take the "slope" of this complex number, i.e. the imaginary part divided by the real part, from the right hand side you see the result will be $tan(3theta)$. On the other hand, by binomial expansion,
                        $$(1 + i tan theta)^3 = 1 + 3i tan theta - 3 tan^2 theta - i tan^3 theta = (1 - 3 tan^2 theta) + i (3 tan theta - tan^3 theta).$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$



                        A slightly different approach using de Moivre's theorem would be: notice that $1 + i tan theta = sec theta cdot e^{i theta}$. Therefore, cubing both sides, $(1 + i tan theta)^3 = sec^3 theta cdot e^{3 i theta}$. Now, if you take the "slope" of this complex number, i.e. the imaginary part divided by the real part, from the right hand side you see the result will be $tan(3theta)$. On the other hand, by binomial expansion,
                        $$(1 + i tan theta)^3 = 1 + 3i tan theta - 3 tan^2 theta - i tan^3 theta = (1 - 3 tan^2 theta) + i (3 tan theta - tan^3 theta).$$







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered Jan 9 at 20:28









                        Daniel ScheplerDaniel Schepler

                        8,4041618




                        8,4041618












                        • $begingroup$
                          where did $1+i tantheta = sec theta times e^{itheta}$ come from?
                          $endgroup$
                          – H.Linkhorn
                          Jan 9 at 20:30










                        • $begingroup$
                          @H.Linkhom You mean how to prove it, or how to come up with it? In the first case, just expand $e^{i theta} = cos theta + i sin theta$ and distribute. In the second case - it's just a common trick for working with $tan theta$. Maybe one motivation to come up with is: $tan theta$ represents the slope of a line at angle $theta$, and to create a complex number with "slope" $m$ you can just take $1 + im$.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Daniel Schepler
                          Jan 9 at 20:35




















                        • $begingroup$
                          where did $1+i tantheta = sec theta times e^{itheta}$ come from?
                          $endgroup$
                          – H.Linkhorn
                          Jan 9 at 20:30










                        • $begingroup$
                          @H.Linkhom You mean how to prove it, or how to come up with it? In the first case, just expand $e^{i theta} = cos theta + i sin theta$ and distribute. In the second case - it's just a common trick for working with $tan theta$. Maybe one motivation to come up with is: $tan theta$ represents the slope of a line at angle $theta$, and to create a complex number with "slope" $m$ you can just take $1 + im$.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Daniel Schepler
                          Jan 9 at 20:35


















                        $begingroup$
                        where did $1+i tantheta = sec theta times e^{itheta}$ come from?
                        $endgroup$
                        – H.Linkhorn
                        Jan 9 at 20:30




                        $begingroup$
                        where did $1+i tantheta = sec theta times e^{itheta}$ come from?
                        $endgroup$
                        – H.Linkhorn
                        Jan 9 at 20:30












                        $begingroup$
                        @H.Linkhom You mean how to prove it, or how to come up with it? In the first case, just expand $e^{i theta} = cos theta + i sin theta$ and distribute. In the second case - it's just a common trick for working with $tan theta$. Maybe one motivation to come up with is: $tan theta$ represents the slope of a line at angle $theta$, and to create a complex number with "slope" $m$ you can just take $1 + im$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Daniel Schepler
                        Jan 9 at 20:35






                        $begingroup$
                        @H.Linkhom You mean how to prove it, or how to come up with it? In the first case, just expand $e^{i theta} = cos theta + i sin theta$ and distribute. In the second case - it's just a common trick for working with $tan theta$. Maybe one motivation to come up with is: $tan theta$ represents the slope of a line at angle $theta$, and to create a complex number with "slope" $m$ you can just take $1 + im$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Daniel Schepler
                        Jan 9 at 20:35













                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        We have
                        $$
                        tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} =
                        frac{frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                        frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta + 3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta + 3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                        frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta}{4cos^3theta} + frac{3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta}{4cos^3 theta} -frac{3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}
                        $$

                        and from there, the simplification is straightforward.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          We have
                          $$
                          tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} =
                          frac{frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                          frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta + 3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta + 3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                          frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta}{4cos^3theta} + frac{3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta}{4cos^3 theta} -frac{3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}
                          $$

                          and from there, the simplification is straightforward.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            We have
                            $$
                            tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} =
                            frac{frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                            frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta + 3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta + 3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                            frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta}{4cos^3theta} + frac{3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta}{4cos^3 theta} -frac{3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}
                            $$

                            and from there, the simplification is straightforward.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            We have
                            $$
                            tan3theta =frac{frac{3sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} =
                            frac{frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)sin theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3(cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta)cos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                            frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta + 3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta + 3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}} = \
                            frac{frac{3cos^2 thetasin theta}{4cos^3theta} + frac{3sin^3 theta}{4cos^3theta} - tan^3theta}{1-frac{3cos^3 theta}{4cos^3 theta} -frac{3sin^2 thetacos theta}{4cos^3 theta}}
                            $$

                            and from there, the simplification is straightforward.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Jan 9 at 20:31

























                            answered Jan 9 at 20:24









                            OmnomnomnomOmnomnomnom

                            127k790178




                            127k790178






























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