Application of the Implicit function theorem on the function $f(x,y)=(1-x^2)cos(2y)-sin(y)log(1+x^2)$












1












$begingroup$


I have the following function :
$$f(x,y)=(1-x^2)cos(2y)-sin(y)log(1+x^2)$$



And the following questions :

a) Prove that there is a smooth function $phi : U to mathbb{R}$ on an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb{R}$ of $1$, such that $phi (1) = pi$ and $f(x,phi(x))=0 $ for all $xin U$



b) Find $phi'(1)$



I have no solutions (yeah, again) to this problem so I would like that you (again) check my work. Thank you.




I proceeded in the same way as in this question that I asked 3 weeks ago, this time being more careful about the notation as was pointed out there: Application of the Implicit function theorem on the function $f(x,y,z)=(x^2+y^2)e^z+sin(pi x)yz+2z-1$

a) If we plug in $f(1,pi)$, we in fact get $0$

If we take the derivative with respect to $y$, we get $2(x^2-1)sin(2y)-cos(y)log(1+x^2)$ which at the point $(1, pi)$ gives $log(2) neq 0$



Given that the derivative with respect to $y$ at that point doesn't give zero, such a function exists.



b) According to the chain rule:
$f_{x,y}=f_{x}+f_{y}phi'(x)=0$

So $phi'(1)=-f_{y}^{-1}f_{x}(1, pi)=frac{-f_{x}}{f_{y}}(1, pi)=frac{-(-2)}{log(2)}=frac{2}{log(2)}$

where $f_x = -frac{2x sin(y)}{x^2 + 1} - 2xcos(2y)$





So yeah, it seems to be correct but I have no solutions, so I don't really know.



Thanks for your help !










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have the following function :
    $$f(x,y)=(1-x^2)cos(2y)-sin(y)log(1+x^2)$$



    And the following questions :

    a) Prove that there is a smooth function $phi : U to mathbb{R}$ on an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb{R}$ of $1$, such that $phi (1) = pi$ and $f(x,phi(x))=0 $ for all $xin U$



    b) Find $phi'(1)$



    I have no solutions (yeah, again) to this problem so I would like that you (again) check my work. Thank you.




    I proceeded in the same way as in this question that I asked 3 weeks ago, this time being more careful about the notation as was pointed out there: Application of the Implicit function theorem on the function $f(x,y,z)=(x^2+y^2)e^z+sin(pi x)yz+2z-1$

    a) If we plug in $f(1,pi)$, we in fact get $0$

    If we take the derivative with respect to $y$, we get $2(x^2-1)sin(2y)-cos(y)log(1+x^2)$ which at the point $(1, pi)$ gives $log(2) neq 0$



    Given that the derivative with respect to $y$ at that point doesn't give zero, such a function exists.



    b) According to the chain rule:
    $f_{x,y}=f_{x}+f_{y}phi'(x)=0$

    So $phi'(1)=-f_{y}^{-1}f_{x}(1, pi)=frac{-f_{x}}{f_{y}}(1, pi)=frac{-(-2)}{log(2)}=frac{2}{log(2)}$

    where $f_x = -frac{2x sin(y)}{x^2 + 1} - 2xcos(2y)$





    So yeah, it seems to be correct but I have no solutions, so I don't really know.



    Thanks for your help !










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      I have the following function :
      $$f(x,y)=(1-x^2)cos(2y)-sin(y)log(1+x^2)$$



      And the following questions :

      a) Prove that there is a smooth function $phi : U to mathbb{R}$ on an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb{R}$ of $1$, such that $phi (1) = pi$ and $f(x,phi(x))=0 $ for all $xin U$



      b) Find $phi'(1)$



      I have no solutions (yeah, again) to this problem so I would like that you (again) check my work. Thank you.




      I proceeded in the same way as in this question that I asked 3 weeks ago, this time being more careful about the notation as was pointed out there: Application of the Implicit function theorem on the function $f(x,y,z)=(x^2+y^2)e^z+sin(pi x)yz+2z-1$

      a) If we plug in $f(1,pi)$, we in fact get $0$

      If we take the derivative with respect to $y$, we get $2(x^2-1)sin(2y)-cos(y)log(1+x^2)$ which at the point $(1, pi)$ gives $log(2) neq 0$



      Given that the derivative with respect to $y$ at that point doesn't give zero, such a function exists.



      b) According to the chain rule:
      $f_{x,y}=f_{x}+f_{y}phi'(x)=0$

      So $phi'(1)=-f_{y}^{-1}f_{x}(1, pi)=frac{-f_{x}}{f_{y}}(1, pi)=frac{-(-2)}{log(2)}=frac{2}{log(2)}$

      where $f_x = -frac{2x sin(y)}{x^2 + 1} - 2xcos(2y)$





      So yeah, it seems to be correct but I have no solutions, so I don't really know.



      Thanks for your help !










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have the following function :
      $$f(x,y)=(1-x^2)cos(2y)-sin(y)log(1+x^2)$$



      And the following questions :

      a) Prove that there is a smooth function $phi : U to mathbb{R}$ on an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb{R}$ of $1$, such that $phi (1) = pi$ and $f(x,phi(x))=0 $ for all $xin U$



      b) Find $phi'(1)$



      I have no solutions (yeah, again) to this problem so I would like that you (again) check my work. Thank you.




      I proceeded in the same way as in this question that I asked 3 weeks ago, this time being more careful about the notation as was pointed out there: Application of the Implicit function theorem on the function $f(x,y,z)=(x^2+y^2)e^z+sin(pi x)yz+2z-1$

      a) If we plug in $f(1,pi)$, we in fact get $0$

      If we take the derivative with respect to $y$, we get $2(x^2-1)sin(2y)-cos(y)log(1+x^2)$ which at the point $(1, pi)$ gives $log(2) neq 0$



      Given that the derivative with respect to $y$ at that point doesn't give zero, such a function exists.



      b) According to the chain rule:
      $f_{x,y}=f_{x}+f_{y}phi'(x)=0$

      So $phi'(1)=-f_{y}^{-1}f_{x}(1, pi)=frac{-f_{x}}{f_{y}}(1, pi)=frac{-(-2)}{log(2)}=frac{2}{log(2)}$

      where $f_x = -frac{2x sin(y)}{x^2 + 1} - 2xcos(2y)$





      So yeah, it seems to be correct but I have no solutions, so I don't really know.



      Thanks for your help !







      real-analysis calculus analysis multivariable-calculus implicit-function-theorem






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      asked Jan 9 at 21:11









      PoujhPoujh

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