$Q(n)$: “$P(k)$ holds for all $k<n$”. Then why is $Q(0)$ clearly true? [duplicate]












0















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  • Strong induction and vacuous truth

    2 answers



  • Strong Induction Requires No Base Case?

    2 answers



  • Why is complete strong induction a valid proof method and not need to explicitly proof the base cases?

    6 answers




It is a principle and proof from Introduction to Set Theory, Hrbacek and Jech.



In the proof, line 1 and 2, I couldn't understand why $Q(0)$ is true.



$Q(0)$ means that "$P(k)$ holds for all $k<0$".



I understood there are no $k<0$.



And then I couldn't proceed.



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marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila set-theory
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15 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • Vacuous truth
    – Wojowu
    16 hours ago
















0















This question already has an answer here:




  • Strong induction and vacuous truth

    2 answers



  • Strong Induction Requires No Base Case?

    2 answers



  • Why is complete strong induction a valid proof method and not need to explicitly proof the base cases?

    6 answers




It is a principle and proof from Introduction to Set Theory, Hrbacek and Jech.



In the proof, line 1 and 2, I couldn't understand why $Q(0)$ is true.



$Q(0)$ means that "$P(k)$ holds for all $k<0$".



I understood there are no $k<0$.



And then I couldn't proceed.



figure for question










share|cite|improve this question















marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila set-theory
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15 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • Vacuous truth
    – Wojowu
    16 hours ago














0












0








0








This question already has an answer here:




  • Strong induction and vacuous truth

    2 answers



  • Strong Induction Requires No Base Case?

    2 answers



  • Why is complete strong induction a valid proof method and not need to explicitly proof the base cases?

    6 answers




It is a principle and proof from Introduction to Set Theory, Hrbacek and Jech.



In the proof, line 1 and 2, I couldn't understand why $Q(0)$ is true.



$Q(0)$ means that "$P(k)$ holds for all $k<0$".



I understood there are no $k<0$.



And then I couldn't proceed.



figure for question










share|cite|improve this question
















This question already has an answer here:




  • Strong induction and vacuous truth

    2 answers



  • Strong Induction Requires No Base Case?

    2 answers



  • Why is complete strong induction a valid proof method and not need to explicitly proof the base cases?

    6 answers




It is a principle and proof from Introduction to Set Theory, Hrbacek and Jech.



In the proof, line 1 and 2, I couldn't understand why $Q(0)$ is true.



$Q(0)$ means that "$P(k)$ holds for all $k<0$".



I understood there are no $k<0$.



And then I couldn't proceed.



figure for question





This question already has an answer here:




  • Strong induction and vacuous truth

    2 answers



  • Strong Induction Requires No Base Case?

    2 answers



  • Why is complete strong induction a valid proof method and not need to explicitly proof the base cases?

    6 answers








induction proof-explanation






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edited 10 hours ago









Andrés E. Caicedo

64.8k8158246




64.8k8158246










asked 16 hours ago









Doyun Nam

4169




4169




marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila set-theory
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15 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila set-theory
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15 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • Vacuous truth
    – Wojowu
    16 hours ago


















  • Vacuous truth
    – Wojowu
    16 hours ago
















Vacuous truth
– Wojowu
16 hours ago




Vacuous truth
– Wojowu
16 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1














$Q(n)$ is the predicate "$forall kin{Bbb N}_0 (k<nRightarrow P(k))$." Then $Q(0)$ is vacuously true, since the premise is false and so the implication is true.






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    1














    A sentence like "for all $x$, if $x$ has the property $A$, then $x$ has the property $B$" is false if (and only if) there exists a counterexample, that is, if there exists some $x$ with the property $A$ but without the property $B$.



    If there is no $x$ that has the property $A$, then there is no counterexample, so the sentence is true.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1














      $Q(n)$ is the predicate "$forall kin{Bbb N}_0 (k<nRightarrow P(k))$." Then $Q(0)$ is vacuously true, since the premise is false and so the implication is true.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        1














        $Q(n)$ is the predicate "$forall kin{Bbb N}_0 (k<nRightarrow P(k))$." Then $Q(0)$ is vacuously true, since the premise is false and so the implication is true.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          1












          1








          1






          $Q(n)$ is the predicate "$forall kin{Bbb N}_0 (k<nRightarrow P(k))$." Then $Q(0)$ is vacuously true, since the premise is false and so the implication is true.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $Q(n)$ is the predicate "$forall kin{Bbb N}_0 (k<nRightarrow P(k))$." Then $Q(0)$ is vacuously true, since the premise is false and so the implication is true.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 15 hours ago









          Wuestenfux

          3,6041411




          3,6041411























              1














              A sentence like "for all $x$, if $x$ has the property $A$, then $x$ has the property $B$" is false if (and only if) there exists a counterexample, that is, if there exists some $x$ with the property $A$ but without the property $B$.



              If there is no $x$ that has the property $A$, then there is no counterexample, so the sentence is true.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                1














                A sentence like "for all $x$, if $x$ has the property $A$, then $x$ has the property $B$" is false if (and only if) there exists a counterexample, that is, if there exists some $x$ with the property $A$ but without the property $B$.



                If there is no $x$ that has the property $A$, then there is no counterexample, so the sentence is true.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  1












                  1








                  1






                  A sentence like "for all $x$, if $x$ has the property $A$, then $x$ has the property $B$" is false if (and only if) there exists a counterexample, that is, if there exists some $x$ with the property $A$ but without the property $B$.



                  If there is no $x$ that has the property $A$, then there is no counterexample, so the sentence is true.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  A sentence like "for all $x$, if $x$ has the property $A$, then $x$ has the property $B$" is false if (and only if) there exists a counterexample, that is, if there exists some $x$ with the property $A$ but without the property $B$.



                  If there is no $x$ that has the property $A$, then there is no counterexample, so the sentence is true.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 16 hours ago









                  ajotatxe

                  53.4k23890




                  53.4k23890















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