Homogeneous Fredholm Integral Equation of Second Kind with Boundary Conditions












0














I have come across a claim that I am quite certain is true, but would be benefited from seeing a proof sketch.



Suppose we know the following equation:
$$
f(z)=int_0^T K(z,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x,
$$

which is a standard homogeneous Fredholm equation of the second kind. Suppose that $K>0$ on $[0,T]times [0,T]$ except $K(T,x)=0$ for all $x in [0,T].$ Therefore, any solution satisfies $f(T)=0.$



Assume $f(z)$ is a solution. Intuitively, it seems like if $f(0)=0,$ then $f(z)equiv 0.$ I say this because we have
begin{align*}
0&=int_0^T K(0,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x \
&=int_0^Tint_0^TK(0,x)K(x,x_1)f(x_1),mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
&=int_0^Tint_0^Tint_0^T K(0,x)K(x,x_1)K(x_1,x_2)f(x_2),mathrm{d}x_2mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
&vdots \
&=int_0^T...int_0^T K(0,x)...K(x_{n-1},x_n)f(x_n), mathrm{d}x_n ...mathrm{d}x.
end{align*}



In all of the integrals, $K>0$ a.e. It seems like by repeating this process, we must have $fequiv 0.$ Note that $K(z,x)neq K(x,z)$ and $K$ is not separable. Thank you.










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    0














    I have come across a claim that I am quite certain is true, but would be benefited from seeing a proof sketch.



    Suppose we know the following equation:
    $$
    f(z)=int_0^T K(z,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x,
    $$

    which is a standard homogeneous Fredholm equation of the second kind. Suppose that $K>0$ on $[0,T]times [0,T]$ except $K(T,x)=0$ for all $x in [0,T].$ Therefore, any solution satisfies $f(T)=0.$



    Assume $f(z)$ is a solution. Intuitively, it seems like if $f(0)=0,$ then $f(z)equiv 0.$ I say this because we have
    begin{align*}
    0&=int_0^T K(0,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x \
    &=int_0^Tint_0^TK(0,x)K(x,x_1)f(x_1),mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
    &=int_0^Tint_0^Tint_0^T K(0,x)K(x,x_1)K(x_1,x_2)f(x_2),mathrm{d}x_2mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
    &vdots \
    &=int_0^T...int_0^T K(0,x)...K(x_{n-1},x_n)f(x_n), mathrm{d}x_n ...mathrm{d}x.
    end{align*}



    In all of the integrals, $K>0$ a.e. It seems like by repeating this process, we must have $fequiv 0.$ Note that $K(z,x)neq K(x,z)$ and $K$ is not separable. Thank you.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0







      I have come across a claim that I am quite certain is true, but would be benefited from seeing a proof sketch.



      Suppose we know the following equation:
      $$
      f(z)=int_0^T K(z,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x,
      $$

      which is a standard homogeneous Fredholm equation of the second kind. Suppose that $K>0$ on $[0,T]times [0,T]$ except $K(T,x)=0$ for all $x in [0,T].$ Therefore, any solution satisfies $f(T)=0.$



      Assume $f(z)$ is a solution. Intuitively, it seems like if $f(0)=0,$ then $f(z)equiv 0.$ I say this because we have
      begin{align*}
      0&=int_0^T K(0,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x \
      &=int_0^Tint_0^TK(0,x)K(x,x_1)f(x_1),mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
      &=int_0^Tint_0^Tint_0^T K(0,x)K(x,x_1)K(x_1,x_2)f(x_2),mathrm{d}x_2mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
      &vdots \
      &=int_0^T...int_0^T K(0,x)...K(x_{n-1},x_n)f(x_n), mathrm{d}x_n ...mathrm{d}x.
      end{align*}



      In all of the integrals, $K>0$ a.e. It seems like by repeating this process, we must have $fequiv 0.$ Note that $K(z,x)neq K(x,z)$ and $K$ is not separable. Thank you.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I have come across a claim that I am quite certain is true, but would be benefited from seeing a proof sketch.



      Suppose we know the following equation:
      $$
      f(z)=int_0^T K(z,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x,
      $$

      which is a standard homogeneous Fredholm equation of the second kind. Suppose that $K>0$ on $[0,T]times [0,T]$ except $K(T,x)=0$ for all $x in [0,T].$ Therefore, any solution satisfies $f(T)=0.$



      Assume $f(z)$ is a solution. Intuitively, it seems like if $f(0)=0,$ then $f(z)equiv 0.$ I say this because we have
      begin{align*}
      0&=int_0^T K(0,x)f(x),mathrm{d}x \
      &=int_0^Tint_0^TK(0,x)K(x,x_1)f(x_1),mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
      &=int_0^Tint_0^Tint_0^T K(0,x)K(x,x_1)K(x_1,x_2)f(x_2),mathrm{d}x_2mathrm{d}x_1mathrm{d}x \
      &vdots \
      &=int_0^T...int_0^T K(0,x)...K(x_{n-1},x_n)f(x_n), mathrm{d}x_n ...mathrm{d}x.
      end{align*}



      In all of the integrals, $K>0$ a.e. It seems like by repeating this process, we must have $fequiv 0.$ Note that $K(z,x)neq K(x,z)$ and $K$ is not separable. Thank you.







      functional-analysis reproducing-kernel-hilbert-space






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          $fequiv0$ is certainly a solution. The question is wether there are other nontrivial solurtions. Consider the case $K(z,x)=g(z),h(x)$ with $g(T)=0$, $gnotequiv0$. Then $g$ is a solution if $int_0^Th(x),g(x),dx=1$.






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            $fequiv0$ is certainly a solution. The question is wether there are other nontrivial solurtions. Consider the case $K(z,x)=g(z),h(x)$ with $g(T)=0$, $gnotequiv0$. Then $g$ is a solution if $int_0^Th(x),g(x),dx=1$.






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              $fequiv0$ is certainly a solution. The question is wether there are other nontrivial solurtions. Consider the case $K(z,x)=g(z),h(x)$ with $g(T)=0$, $gnotequiv0$. Then $g$ is a solution if $int_0^Th(x),g(x),dx=1$.






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                $fequiv0$ is certainly a solution. The question is wether there are other nontrivial solurtions. Consider the case $K(z,x)=g(z),h(x)$ with $g(T)=0$, $gnotequiv0$. Then $g$ is a solution if $int_0^Th(x),g(x),dx=1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                $fequiv0$ is certainly a solution. The question is wether there are other nontrivial solurtions. Consider the case $K(z,x)=g(z),h(x)$ with $g(T)=0$, $gnotequiv0$. Then $g$ is a solution if $int_0^Th(x),g(x),dx=1$.







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                answered 17 hours ago









                Julián Aguirre

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                67.6k24094






























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