If $sin(pi x)=a_0+sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}a_n cos(npi x)$ for $0<x<1$ then what is the value of...












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If $sin(pi x)=a_0+sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}a_n cos(npi x)$ for $0<x<1$ then what is the value of $(a_0+a_1)pi$?




Honestly I have no idea about how to approach this problem. I tried the expansion of $sin x$ on the left hand side and then expand $cos x$ on the right but end up with a mess. Then again $cos x=(sin x)'$, but by converting each term on the right hand side into derivative of sine does not give any sensible identity to draw out something. Really out of ideas on this one. Is there any way to do this? Please give me some hints. Thanks for your time.










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    If $sin(pi x)=a_0+sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}a_n cos(npi x)$ for $0<x<1$ then what is the value of $(a_0+a_1)pi$?




    Honestly I have no idea about how to approach this problem. I tried the expansion of $sin x$ on the left hand side and then expand $cos x$ on the right but end up with a mess. Then again $cos x=(sin x)'$, but by converting each term on the right hand side into derivative of sine does not give any sensible identity to draw out something. Really out of ideas on this one. Is there any way to do this? Please give me some hints. Thanks for your time.










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      If $sin(pi x)=a_0+sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}a_n cos(npi x)$ for $0<x<1$ then what is the value of $(a_0+a_1)pi$?




      Honestly I have no idea about how to approach this problem. I tried the expansion of $sin x$ on the left hand side and then expand $cos x$ on the right but end up with a mess. Then again $cos x=(sin x)'$, but by converting each term on the right hand side into derivative of sine does not give any sensible identity to draw out something. Really out of ideas on this one. Is there any way to do this? Please give me some hints. Thanks for your time.










      share|cite|improve this question
















      If $sin(pi x)=a_0+sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}a_n cos(npi x)$ for $0<x<1$ then what is the value of $(a_0+a_1)pi$?




      Honestly I have no idea about how to approach this problem. I tried the expansion of $sin x$ on the left hand side and then expand $cos x$ on the right but end up with a mess. Then again $cos x=(sin x)'$, but by converting each term on the right hand side into derivative of sine does not give any sensible identity to draw out something. Really out of ideas on this one. Is there any way to do this? Please give me some hints. Thanks for your time.







      sequences-and-series trigonometric-series






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      edited 16 hours ago









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      Kushal Bhuyan

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          Apply the integration $int_0^1 cos(pi x) f(x) dx$, then
          $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$



          Since $int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx = 0$ for $n ne 1$, you have
          $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +a_1 int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$ which is $0 = 0 + 0.5 a_1$, hence $a1 = 0$.



          Likewise just integrate:



          $$int_0^1 sin(pi x) dx=a_0 +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(npi x) dx$$ which gives $2/pi = a_0+ 0$.



          So the result is $(a_0+a_1)pi = 2$.






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            1














            The region matters. The region is everything. It may seem odd to approximate the odd function $sin pi x$ with sums of even functions $cos npi x$ - but that's not what we're really doing.



            Continue that $sin$ to be periodic of period $1$, and we get $sin(pi(x+1))=-sin x$ on $[-1,0]$; the function we're actually trying to estimate is $|sin x|$. On that note, extend the interval to $[-1,1]$. We are now looking at a conventional Fourier series for the even function $|sin pi x|$ on a full period $[-1,1]$.



            By standard Fourier series results, the coefficients $a_n$ in $f(x)=a_0+sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_ncos(npi x)$ ($f$ assumed even on $[-1,1]$) are given by
            begin{align*}a_0 &= frac12int_{-1}^1 f(x),dx\
            a_n &= int_{-1}^1 f(x)cos(npi x),dxend{align*}

            since $int_{-1}^1 1,dx=2$ and $int_{-1}^1 cos^2(npi x),dx=1$.



            Calculating the terms we're interested in for $f(x)=|sinpi x|$,
            $$a_0=frac12int_{-1}^1 |sin(pi x)|,dx = int_0^1 sin(pi x),dx = frac2{pi}$$
            $$a_1 = int_{-1}^1 cos(pi x)|sin(pi x)|,dx = 2int_0^1 cos(pi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin(2pi x),dx =0$$
            Then $pi(a_0+a_1)=pileft(frac 2{pi}+0right)=2$.



            We could calculate more terms if we felt like it. For all odd $n$, we have $cos(pi(1-x))=-cos(pi x)$, leading to $a_n=0$. For even $n$, we have the product-to sum identity $cos(npi x)sin(pi x) = frac12(sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x))$ so
            begin{align*} a_n &= 2int_0^1 cos(npi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x),dx\
            &= frac{2}{(n+1)pi}-frac{2}{(n-1)pi} = frac{-4}{(n^2-1)pi}end{align*}



            With some experience in Fourier series, we can recognize that $O(n^{-2})$ decay rate as characteristic of a function with a jump discontinuity in the first derivative.






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              3














              Apply the integration $int_0^1 cos(pi x) f(x) dx$, then
              $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$



              Since $int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx = 0$ for $n ne 1$, you have
              $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +a_1 int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$ which is $0 = 0 + 0.5 a_1$, hence $a1 = 0$.



              Likewise just integrate:



              $$int_0^1 sin(pi x) dx=a_0 +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(npi x) dx$$ which gives $2/pi = a_0+ 0$.



              So the result is $(a_0+a_1)pi = 2$.






              share|cite|improve this answer




























                3














                Apply the integration $int_0^1 cos(pi x) f(x) dx$, then
                $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$



                Since $int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx = 0$ for $n ne 1$, you have
                $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +a_1 int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$ which is $0 = 0 + 0.5 a_1$, hence $a1 = 0$.



                Likewise just integrate:



                $$int_0^1 sin(pi x) dx=a_0 +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(npi x) dx$$ which gives $2/pi = a_0+ 0$.



                So the result is $(a_0+a_1)pi = 2$.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  3












                  3








                  3






                  Apply the integration $int_0^1 cos(pi x) f(x) dx$, then
                  $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$



                  Since $int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx = 0$ for $n ne 1$, you have
                  $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +a_1 int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$ which is $0 = 0 + 0.5 a_1$, hence $a1 = 0$.



                  Likewise just integrate:



                  $$int_0^1 sin(pi x) dx=a_0 +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(npi x) dx$$ which gives $2/pi = a_0+ 0$.



                  So the result is $(a_0+a_1)pi = 2$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Apply the integration $int_0^1 cos(pi x) f(x) dx$, then
                  $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$



                  Since $int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx = 0$ for $n ne 1$, you have
                  $$int_0^1 cos(pi x) sin(pi x) dx=a_0 int_0^1 cos(pi x) dx +a_1 int_0^1 cos(pi x) cos(npi x) dx$$ which is $0 = 0 + 0.5 a_1$, hence $a1 = 0$.



                  Likewise just integrate:



                  $$int_0^1 sin(pi x) dx=a_0 +sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n int_0^1 cos(npi x) dx$$ which gives $2/pi = a_0+ 0$.



                  So the result is $(a_0+a_1)pi = 2$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited 16 hours ago

























                  answered 16 hours ago









                  Andreas

                  7,8281037




                  7,8281037























                      1














                      The region matters. The region is everything. It may seem odd to approximate the odd function $sin pi x$ with sums of even functions $cos npi x$ - but that's not what we're really doing.



                      Continue that $sin$ to be periodic of period $1$, and we get $sin(pi(x+1))=-sin x$ on $[-1,0]$; the function we're actually trying to estimate is $|sin x|$. On that note, extend the interval to $[-1,1]$. We are now looking at a conventional Fourier series for the even function $|sin pi x|$ on a full period $[-1,1]$.



                      By standard Fourier series results, the coefficients $a_n$ in $f(x)=a_0+sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_ncos(npi x)$ ($f$ assumed even on $[-1,1]$) are given by
                      begin{align*}a_0 &= frac12int_{-1}^1 f(x),dx\
                      a_n &= int_{-1}^1 f(x)cos(npi x),dxend{align*}

                      since $int_{-1}^1 1,dx=2$ and $int_{-1}^1 cos^2(npi x),dx=1$.



                      Calculating the terms we're interested in for $f(x)=|sinpi x|$,
                      $$a_0=frac12int_{-1}^1 |sin(pi x)|,dx = int_0^1 sin(pi x),dx = frac2{pi}$$
                      $$a_1 = int_{-1}^1 cos(pi x)|sin(pi x)|,dx = 2int_0^1 cos(pi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin(2pi x),dx =0$$
                      Then $pi(a_0+a_1)=pileft(frac 2{pi}+0right)=2$.



                      We could calculate more terms if we felt like it. For all odd $n$, we have $cos(pi(1-x))=-cos(pi x)$, leading to $a_n=0$. For even $n$, we have the product-to sum identity $cos(npi x)sin(pi x) = frac12(sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x))$ so
                      begin{align*} a_n &= 2int_0^1 cos(npi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x),dx\
                      &= frac{2}{(n+1)pi}-frac{2}{(n-1)pi} = frac{-4}{(n^2-1)pi}end{align*}



                      With some experience in Fourier series, we can recognize that $O(n^{-2})$ decay rate as characteristic of a function with a jump discontinuity in the first derivative.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        1














                        The region matters. The region is everything. It may seem odd to approximate the odd function $sin pi x$ with sums of even functions $cos npi x$ - but that's not what we're really doing.



                        Continue that $sin$ to be periodic of period $1$, and we get $sin(pi(x+1))=-sin x$ on $[-1,0]$; the function we're actually trying to estimate is $|sin x|$. On that note, extend the interval to $[-1,1]$. We are now looking at a conventional Fourier series for the even function $|sin pi x|$ on a full period $[-1,1]$.



                        By standard Fourier series results, the coefficients $a_n$ in $f(x)=a_0+sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_ncos(npi x)$ ($f$ assumed even on $[-1,1]$) are given by
                        begin{align*}a_0 &= frac12int_{-1}^1 f(x),dx\
                        a_n &= int_{-1}^1 f(x)cos(npi x),dxend{align*}

                        since $int_{-1}^1 1,dx=2$ and $int_{-1}^1 cos^2(npi x),dx=1$.



                        Calculating the terms we're interested in for $f(x)=|sinpi x|$,
                        $$a_0=frac12int_{-1}^1 |sin(pi x)|,dx = int_0^1 sin(pi x),dx = frac2{pi}$$
                        $$a_1 = int_{-1}^1 cos(pi x)|sin(pi x)|,dx = 2int_0^1 cos(pi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin(2pi x),dx =0$$
                        Then $pi(a_0+a_1)=pileft(frac 2{pi}+0right)=2$.



                        We could calculate more terms if we felt like it. For all odd $n$, we have $cos(pi(1-x))=-cos(pi x)$, leading to $a_n=0$. For even $n$, we have the product-to sum identity $cos(npi x)sin(pi x) = frac12(sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x))$ so
                        begin{align*} a_n &= 2int_0^1 cos(npi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x),dx\
                        &= frac{2}{(n+1)pi}-frac{2}{(n-1)pi} = frac{-4}{(n^2-1)pi}end{align*}



                        With some experience in Fourier series, we can recognize that $O(n^{-2})$ decay rate as characteristic of a function with a jump discontinuity in the first derivative.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          1












                          1








                          1






                          The region matters. The region is everything. It may seem odd to approximate the odd function $sin pi x$ with sums of even functions $cos npi x$ - but that's not what we're really doing.



                          Continue that $sin$ to be periodic of period $1$, and we get $sin(pi(x+1))=-sin x$ on $[-1,0]$; the function we're actually trying to estimate is $|sin x|$. On that note, extend the interval to $[-1,1]$. We are now looking at a conventional Fourier series for the even function $|sin pi x|$ on a full period $[-1,1]$.



                          By standard Fourier series results, the coefficients $a_n$ in $f(x)=a_0+sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_ncos(npi x)$ ($f$ assumed even on $[-1,1]$) are given by
                          begin{align*}a_0 &= frac12int_{-1}^1 f(x),dx\
                          a_n &= int_{-1}^1 f(x)cos(npi x),dxend{align*}

                          since $int_{-1}^1 1,dx=2$ and $int_{-1}^1 cos^2(npi x),dx=1$.



                          Calculating the terms we're interested in for $f(x)=|sinpi x|$,
                          $$a_0=frac12int_{-1}^1 |sin(pi x)|,dx = int_0^1 sin(pi x),dx = frac2{pi}$$
                          $$a_1 = int_{-1}^1 cos(pi x)|sin(pi x)|,dx = 2int_0^1 cos(pi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin(2pi x),dx =0$$
                          Then $pi(a_0+a_1)=pileft(frac 2{pi}+0right)=2$.



                          We could calculate more terms if we felt like it. For all odd $n$, we have $cos(pi(1-x))=-cos(pi x)$, leading to $a_n=0$. For even $n$, we have the product-to sum identity $cos(npi x)sin(pi x) = frac12(sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x))$ so
                          begin{align*} a_n &= 2int_0^1 cos(npi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x),dx\
                          &= frac{2}{(n+1)pi}-frac{2}{(n-1)pi} = frac{-4}{(n^2-1)pi}end{align*}



                          With some experience in Fourier series, we can recognize that $O(n^{-2})$ decay rate as characteristic of a function with a jump discontinuity in the first derivative.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          The region matters. The region is everything. It may seem odd to approximate the odd function $sin pi x$ with sums of even functions $cos npi x$ - but that's not what we're really doing.



                          Continue that $sin$ to be periodic of period $1$, and we get $sin(pi(x+1))=-sin x$ on $[-1,0]$; the function we're actually trying to estimate is $|sin x|$. On that note, extend the interval to $[-1,1]$. We are now looking at a conventional Fourier series for the even function $|sin pi x|$ on a full period $[-1,1]$.



                          By standard Fourier series results, the coefficients $a_n$ in $f(x)=a_0+sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_ncos(npi x)$ ($f$ assumed even on $[-1,1]$) are given by
                          begin{align*}a_0 &= frac12int_{-1}^1 f(x),dx\
                          a_n &= int_{-1}^1 f(x)cos(npi x),dxend{align*}

                          since $int_{-1}^1 1,dx=2$ and $int_{-1}^1 cos^2(npi x),dx=1$.



                          Calculating the terms we're interested in for $f(x)=|sinpi x|$,
                          $$a_0=frac12int_{-1}^1 |sin(pi x)|,dx = int_0^1 sin(pi x),dx = frac2{pi}$$
                          $$a_1 = int_{-1}^1 cos(pi x)|sin(pi x)|,dx = 2int_0^1 cos(pi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin(2pi x),dx =0$$
                          Then $pi(a_0+a_1)=pileft(frac 2{pi}+0right)=2$.



                          We could calculate more terms if we felt like it. For all odd $n$, we have $cos(pi(1-x))=-cos(pi x)$, leading to $a_n=0$. For even $n$, we have the product-to sum identity $cos(npi x)sin(pi x) = frac12(sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x))$ so
                          begin{align*} a_n &= 2int_0^1 cos(npi x)sin(pi x),dx = int_0^1 sin((n+1)pi x) - sin((n-1)pi x),dx\
                          &= frac{2}{(n+1)pi}-frac{2}{(n-1)pi} = frac{-4}{(n^2-1)pi}end{align*}



                          With some experience in Fourier series, we can recognize that $O(n^{-2})$ decay rate as characteristic of a function with a jump discontinuity in the first derivative.







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                          answered 16 hours ago









                          jmerry

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                          2,076210






























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