Construct homotopy from $(alpha cdot beta) cdot gamma$ to $alpha cdot (beta cdot gamma)$ explicitly












5












$begingroup$


I understand the general idea of a homotopy, but I'm a little lost on how to create them myself. For example if I wanted to show



$$ text{Let} : alpha, beta, text{and} : gamma : text{be paths} : I to X, : text{from} : x_{0} : text{to} : y_{0}, y_{0} : text{to} : z_{0}, : text{and} : z_{0} : text{to} : u_{0}. : text{Then} : \
(alpha cdot beta) cdot gamma sim alpha cdot (beta cdot gamma) $$



A possible homotopy is $F: I times I to X$, given by
$$\ F(t,s) =
begin{cases}
alpha(frac{4t}{1+s}) & 0 leq t leq frac{s+1}{4} \
beta(4t-1-s) & frac{s+1}{4} leq t leq frac{s+2}{4} \
gamma(frac{4t - 2 - s}{2-s}) & frac{s+2}{4} leq t leq 1 \
end{cases}$$



What I don't understand is where this comes from. What is the intuition here and how can I form explicit homotopies like this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    5












    $begingroup$


    I understand the general idea of a homotopy, but I'm a little lost on how to create them myself. For example if I wanted to show



    $$ text{Let} : alpha, beta, text{and} : gamma : text{be paths} : I to X, : text{from} : x_{0} : text{to} : y_{0}, y_{0} : text{to} : z_{0}, : text{and} : z_{0} : text{to} : u_{0}. : text{Then} : \
    (alpha cdot beta) cdot gamma sim alpha cdot (beta cdot gamma) $$



    A possible homotopy is $F: I times I to X$, given by
    $$\ F(t,s) =
    begin{cases}
    alpha(frac{4t}{1+s}) & 0 leq t leq frac{s+1}{4} \
    beta(4t-1-s) & frac{s+1}{4} leq t leq frac{s+2}{4} \
    gamma(frac{4t - 2 - s}{2-s}) & frac{s+2}{4} leq t leq 1 \
    end{cases}$$



    What I don't understand is where this comes from. What is the intuition here and how can I form explicit homotopies like this?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      5












      5








      5


      1



      $begingroup$


      I understand the general idea of a homotopy, but I'm a little lost on how to create them myself. For example if I wanted to show



      $$ text{Let} : alpha, beta, text{and} : gamma : text{be paths} : I to X, : text{from} : x_{0} : text{to} : y_{0}, y_{0} : text{to} : z_{0}, : text{and} : z_{0} : text{to} : u_{0}. : text{Then} : \
      (alpha cdot beta) cdot gamma sim alpha cdot (beta cdot gamma) $$



      A possible homotopy is $F: I times I to X$, given by
      $$\ F(t,s) =
      begin{cases}
      alpha(frac{4t}{1+s}) & 0 leq t leq frac{s+1}{4} \
      beta(4t-1-s) & frac{s+1}{4} leq t leq frac{s+2}{4} \
      gamma(frac{4t - 2 - s}{2-s}) & frac{s+2}{4} leq t leq 1 \
      end{cases}$$



      What I don't understand is where this comes from. What is the intuition here and how can I form explicit homotopies like this?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I understand the general idea of a homotopy, but I'm a little lost on how to create them myself. For example if I wanted to show



      $$ text{Let} : alpha, beta, text{and} : gamma : text{be paths} : I to X, : text{from} : x_{0} : text{to} : y_{0}, y_{0} : text{to} : z_{0}, : text{and} : z_{0} : text{to} : u_{0}. : text{Then} : \
      (alpha cdot beta) cdot gamma sim alpha cdot (beta cdot gamma) $$



      A possible homotopy is $F: I times I to X$, given by
      $$\ F(t,s) =
      begin{cases}
      alpha(frac{4t}{1+s}) & 0 leq t leq frac{s+1}{4} \
      beta(4t-1-s) & frac{s+1}{4} leq t leq frac{s+2}{4} \
      gamma(frac{4t - 2 - s}{2-s}) & frac{s+2}{4} leq t leq 1 \
      end{cases}$$



      What I don't understand is where this comes from. What is the intuition here and how can I form explicit homotopies like this?







      general-topology algebraic-topology






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      edited Jan 18 at 12:16









      Andrews

      4031317




      4031317










      asked Jan 18 at 1:28









      SigmaSigma

      33829




      33829






















          4 Answers
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          9












          $begingroup$

          See the picture below.



          enter image description here



          The idea is that, for any choice of $s$, the loop $t mapsto F(t, s)$ consists of walking along $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$, in that order. The difference between the various choices of $s$ is in the "time schedule": each choice of $s$ allocates different amounts of time to $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$.




          • If $s = 0$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 4]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 4, tfrac 1 2 ]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 1 2 , 1]$.


          • If $s = 1$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 2]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 2, tfrac 3 4]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 3 4 , 1]$.



          For intermediate choices of $s$, the schedule is given by interpolation.



          So for example, if $s = tfrac 1 2$, you walk $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 3 8]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 3 8, tfrac 5 8]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 5 8, 1]$. And so on.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            This is basically a reparametrization of the curve, but the parametrization is changing continuously. We may come up with the homotopy in two steps.





            Let $u:Ito X$ be a curve, let $phi:Ito I$ be a continuous map with $phi(0)=0$ and $phi(1)=1$, then $u$ is homotopic to $ucircphi$.





            Proof: define $H(s, t)=u((1-s)t+sphi(t))$, then $H(0,t)=u(t)$, $H(1,t)=u(phi(t))$ and $H(s, 0)=u(0)$, $H(s, 1)=u(1)$. Essentially this is just mapping a homotopy between $operatorname{Id}$ and $phi$ in $I$ to the homotopy in $X$ by $u$.



            We could construct $phi:Ito I$ by rescaling the speed according to the time of travel through each curve. More explicitly, we have $[alphacdot(betacdotgamma)] (t) = [(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma] (phi(t)) $ if we define: $$phi(t) =begin{cases}frac 12 t, & tin[0,frac 12]\ t-frac14, & tin [frac12, frac34] \ 2t-1, & tin [frac34, 1]end{cases} $$



            However if you apply the formula above, while we still get a homotopy, but the formula is not as clean (as in we need to divide into 5 cases). To obtain the formula you stated, let's look at the graphs of the intermediate reparametrizations, for each fixed $s_0$, the graph of $phi_{s_0}(t) =1-s_0)t + s_0 phi(t) $ would look like a "sheared up" version of $phi(t)$. So image of the points at which $phi_{s_0}$ are piecewisely defined do not match with the points at which $(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma$ is piecewisely defined. To make them match we need to "shear" $phi(t)$ to the left.



            So we should take $tildephi_s(t)$ the inverse function of $(1-s)t+sphi^{-1}(t)$, i.e. $tildephi_s(t)$ is the inverse of $$begin{cases}(1+s)t, & tin[0,frac14] \ t+frac s4, & tin[frac 14,frac 12]\ frac 12(2-s)t +frac s2, & tin[frac 12,1]end{cases}$$



            Which is given by: $$tildephi_s(t) =begin{cases} frac t{1+s}, & tin[0,frac {s+1}4]\ t-frac s4, & tin[frac{s+1}4,frac{s+2}4]\ frac 2{2-s}t - frac s{2-s}, & tin[frac {s+2}4,1]end{cases} $$



            The homotopy you provided in the post is then $H(s, t) =[(alphacdot beta)cdot gamma](tildephi_s(t)) $.






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              1












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              I have checked the definition and all axioms of the first homotopy group in this note and in this I also explain the exact homotopy you describe. I hope it helps you...






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                0












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                There is an easier way to do this by using the notion of a "Moore path" as a pair $(f,r)$ where $r in mathbb R, r geqslant 0$ and $f:[0, infty) to X$ is constant $[r, infty)$. This definition is used in the quite old book on Knot Theory by Crowell and Fox. Alternatively, as in Topology and Groupoids, one considers a path of length $r geqslant 0$ to be a map $f:[0, r] to X$. The composite of a path of length $r$ with a path of length $s$ is then, when defined, of length $r+s$. This corresponds intuitively to the idea of path as a "journey". Composition is then associative. We also have paths of length $0$ and in both definitions the composition of paths in $X$ gives a category $PX$.



                We also write $s$ for a constant path of length $s$ at $y in X$ and say two paths $f,g$ from $x$ to $y$ in $X$ are equivalent if there are real numbers $s,t geqslant 0$
                such that $f+s, g+t$ are homotopic rel end points. This gives the fundamental groupoid $pi_1(X)$.



                One easily proves that any path is equivalent to a path of length $1$. This is called normalisation, which is not a process one uses for journeys.



                The formulae needed for all this work out much easier than the usual ones, which seems to me a good thing. (I've said all this somewhere else on this site.)






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                  9












                  $begingroup$

                  See the picture below.



                  enter image description here



                  The idea is that, for any choice of $s$, the loop $t mapsto F(t, s)$ consists of walking along $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$, in that order. The difference between the various choices of $s$ is in the "time schedule": each choice of $s$ allocates different amounts of time to $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$.




                  • If $s = 0$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 4]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 4, tfrac 1 2 ]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 1 2 , 1]$.


                  • If $s = 1$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 2]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 2, tfrac 3 4]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 3 4 , 1]$.



                  For intermediate choices of $s$, the schedule is given by interpolation.



                  So for example, if $s = tfrac 1 2$, you walk $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 3 8]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 3 8, tfrac 5 8]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 5 8, 1]$. And so on.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    9












                    $begingroup$

                    See the picture below.



                    enter image description here



                    The idea is that, for any choice of $s$, the loop $t mapsto F(t, s)$ consists of walking along $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$, in that order. The difference between the various choices of $s$ is in the "time schedule": each choice of $s$ allocates different amounts of time to $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$.




                    • If $s = 0$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 4]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 4, tfrac 1 2 ]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 1 2 , 1]$.


                    • If $s = 1$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 2]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 2, tfrac 3 4]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 3 4 , 1]$.



                    For intermediate choices of $s$, the schedule is given by interpolation.



                    So for example, if $s = tfrac 1 2$, you walk $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 3 8]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 3 8, tfrac 5 8]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 5 8, 1]$. And so on.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      9












                      9








                      9





                      $begingroup$

                      See the picture below.



                      enter image description here



                      The idea is that, for any choice of $s$, the loop $t mapsto F(t, s)$ consists of walking along $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$, in that order. The difference between the various choices of $s$ is in the "time schedule": each choice of $s$ allocates different amounts of time to $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$.




                      • If $s = 0$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 4]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 4, tfrac 1 2 ]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 1 2 , 1]$.


                      • If $s = 1$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 2]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 2, tfrac 3 4]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 3 4 , 1]$.



                      For intermediate choices of $s$, the schedule is given by interpolation.



                      So for example, if $s = tfrac 1 2$, you walk $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 3 8]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 3 8, tfrac 5 8]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 5 8, 1]$. And so on.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      See the picture below.



                      enter image description here



                      The idea is that, for any choice of $s$, the loop $t mapsto F(t, s)$ consists of walking along $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$, in that order. The difference between the various choices of $s$ is in the "time schedule": each choice of $s$ allocates different amounts of time to $alpha$, $beta$ and $gamma$.




                      • If $s = 0$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 4]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 4, tfrac 1 2 ]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 1 2 , 1]$.


                      • If $s = 1$, you walk path $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 1 2]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 1 2, tfrac 3 4]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 3 4 , 1]$.



                      For intermediate choices of $s$, the schedule is given by interpolation.



                      So for example, if $s = tfrac 1 2$, you walk $alpha$ in time $[0, tfrac 3 8]$, then walk $beta$ in time $[tfrac 3 8, tfrac 5 8]$, then walk $gamma$ in time $[tfrac 5 8, 1]$. And so on.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Jan 18 at 8:37









                      Kenny WongKenny Wong

                      18.8k21439




                      18.8k21439























                          2












                          $begingroup$

                          This is basically a reparametrization of the curve, but the parametrization is changing continuously. We may come up with the homotopy in two steps.





                          Let $u:Ito X$ be a curve, let $phi:Ito I$ be a continuous map with $phi(0)=0$ and $phi(1)=1$, then $u$ is homotopic to $ucircphi$.





                          Proof: define $H(s, t)=u((1-s)t+sphi(t))$, then $H(0,t)=u(t)$, $H(1,t)=u(phi(t))$ and $H(s, 0)=u(0)$, $H(s, 1)=u(1)$. Essentially this is just mapping a homotopy between $operatorname{Id}$ and $phi$ in $I$ to the homotopy in $X$ by $u$.



                          We could construct $phi:Ito I$ by rescaling the speed according to the time of travel through each curve. More explicitly, we have $[alphacdot(betacdotgamma)] (t) = [(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma] (phi(t)) $ if we define: $$phi(t) =begin{cases}frac 12 t, & tin[0,frac 12]\ t-frac14, & tin [frac12, frac34] \ 2t-1, & tin [frac34, 1]end{cases} $$



                          However if you apply the formula above, while we still get a homotopy, but the formula is not as clean (as in we need to divide into 5 cases). To obtain the formula you stated, let's look at the graphs of the intermediate reparametrizations, for each fixed $s_0$, the graph of $phi_{s_0}(t) =1-s_0)t + s_0 phi(t) $ would look like a "sheared up" version of $phi(t)$. So image of the points at which $phi_{s_0}$ are piecewisely defined do not match with the points at which $(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma$ is piecewisely defined. To make them match we need to "shear" $phi(t)$ to the left.



                          So we should take $tildephi_s(t)$ the inverse function of $(1-s)t+sphi^{-1}(t)$, i.e. $tildephi_s(t)$ is the inverse of $$begin{cases}(1+s)t, & tin[0,frac14] \ t+frac s4, & tin[frac 14,frac 12]\ frac 12(2-s)t +frac s2, & tin[frac 12,1]end{cases}$$



                          Which is given by: $$tildephi_s(t) =begin{cases} frac t{1+s}, & tin[0,frac {s+1}4]\ t-frac s4, & tin[frac{s+1}4,frac{s+2}4]\ frac 2{2-s}t - frac s{2-s}, & tin[frac {s+2}4,1]end{cases} $$



                          The homotopy you provided in the post is then $H(s, t) =[(alphacdot beta)cdot gamma](tildephi_s(t)) $.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            2












                            $begingroup$

                            This is basically a reparametrization of the curve, but the parametrization is changing continuously. We may come up with the homotopy in two steps.





                            Let $u:Ito X$ be a curve, let $phi:Ito I$ be a continuous map with $phi(0)=0$ and $phi(1)=1$, then $u$ is homotopic to $ucircphi$.





                            Proof: define $H(s, t)=u((1-s)t+sphi(t))$, then $H(0,t)=u(t)$, $H(1,t)=u(phi(t))$ and $H(s, 0)=u(0)$, $H(s, 1)=u(1)$. Essentially this is just mapping a homotopy between $operatorname{Id}$ and $phi$ in $I$ to the homotopy in $X$ by $u$.



                            We could construct $phi:Ito I$ by rescaling the speed according to the time of travel through each curve. More explicitly, we have $[alphacdot(betacdotgamma)] (t) = [(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma] (phi(t)) $ if we define: $$phi(t) =begin{cases}frac 12 t, & tin[0,frac 12]\ t-frac14, & tin [frac12, frac34] \ 2t-1, & tin [frac34, 1]end{cases} $$



                            However if you apply the formula above, while we still get a homotopy, but the formula is not as clean (as in we need to divide into 5 cases). To obtain the formula you stated, let's look at the graphs of the intermediate reparametrizations, for each fixed $s_0$, the graph of $phi_{s_0}(t) =1-s_0)t + s_0 phi(t) $ would look like a "sheared up" version of $phi(t)$. So image of the points at which $phi_{s_0}$ are piecewisely defined do not match with the points at which $(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma$ is piecewisely defined. To make them match we need to "shear" $phi(t)$ to the left.



                            So we should take $tildephi_s(t)$ the inverse function of $(1-s)t+sphi^{-1}(t)$, i.e. $tildephi_s(t)$ is the inverse of $$begin{cases}(1+s)t, & tin[0,frac14] \ t+frac s4, & tin[frac 14,frac 12]\ frac 12(2-s)t +frac s2, & tin[frac 12,1]end{cases}$$



                            Which is given by: $$tildephi_s(t) =begin{cases} frac t{1+s}, & tin[0,frac {s+1}4]\ t-frac s4, & tin[frac{s+1}4,frac{s+2}4]\ frac 2{2-s}t - frac s{2-s}, & tin[frac {s+2}4,1]end{cases} $$



                            The homotopy you provided in the post is then $H(s, t) =[(alphacdot beta)cdot gamma](tildephi_s(t)) $.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              2












                              2








                              2





                              $begingroup$

                              This is basically a reparametrization of the curve, but the parametrization is changing continuously. We may come up with the homotopy in two steps.





                              Let $u:Ito X$ be a curve, let $phi:Ito I$ be a continuous map with $phi(0)=0$ and $phi(1)=1$, then $u$ is homotopic to $ucircphi$.





                              Proof: define $H(s, t)=u((1-s)t+sphi(t))$, then $H(0,t)=u(t)$, $H(1,t)=u(phi(t))$ and $H(s, 0)=u(0)$, $H(s, 1)=u(1)$. Essentially this is just mapping a homotopy between $operatorname{Id}$ and $phi$ in $I$ to the homotopy in $X$ by $u$.



                              We could construct $phi:Ito I$ by rescaling the speed according to the time of travel through each curve. More explicitly, we have $[alphacdot(betacdotgamma)] (t) = [(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma] (phi(t)) $ if we define: $$phi(t) =begin{cases}frac 12 t, & tin[0,frac 12]\ t-frac14, & tin [frac12, frac34] \ 2t-1, & tin [frac34, 1]end{cases} $$



                              However if you apply the formula above, while we still get a homotopy, but the formula is not as clean (as in we need to divide into 5 cases). To obtain the formula you stated, let's look at the graphs of the intermediate reparametrizations, for each fixed $s_0$, the graph of $phi_{s_0}(t) =1-s_0)t + s_0 phi(t) $ would look like a "sheared up" version of $phi(t)$. So image of the points at which $phi_{s_0}$ are piecewisely defined do not match with the points at which $(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma$ is piecewisely defined. To make them match we need to "shear" $phi(t)$ to the left.



                              So we should take $tildephi_s(t)$ the inverse function of $(1-s)t+sphi^{-1}(t)$, i.e. $tildephi_s(t)$ is the inverse of $$begin{cases}(1+s)t, & tin[0,frac14] \ t+frac s4, & tin[frac 14,frac 12]\ frac 12(2-s)t +frac s2, & tin[frac 12,1]end{cases}$$



                              Which is given by: $$tildephi_s(t) =begin{cases} frac t{1+s}, & tin[0,frac {s+1}4]\ t-frac s4, & tin[frac{s+1}4,frac{s+2}4]\ frac 2{2-s}t - frac s{2-s}, & tin[frac {s+2}4,1]end{cases} $$



                              The homotopy you provided in the post is then $H(s, t) =[(alphacdot beta)cdot gamma](tildephi_s(t)) $.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              This is basically a reparametrization of the curve, but the parametrization is changing continuously. We may come up with the homotopy in two steps.





                              Let $u:Ito X$ be a curve, let $phi:Ito I$ be a continuous map with $phi(0)=0$ and $phi(1)=1$, then $u$ is homotopic to $ucircphi$.





                              Proof: define $H(s, t)=u((1-s)t+sphi(t))$, then $H(0,t)=u(t)$, $H(1,t)=u(phi(t))$ and $H(s, 0)=u(0)$, $H(s, 1)=u(1)$. Essentially this is just mapping a homotopy between $operatorname{Id}$ and $phi$ in $I$ to the homotopy in $X$ by $u$.



                              We could construct $phi:Ito I$ by rescaling the speed according to the time of travel through each curve. More explicitly, we have $[alphacdot(betacdotgamma)] (t) = [(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma] (phi(t)) $ if we define: $$phi(t) =begin{cases}frac 12 t, & tin[0,frac 12]\ t-frac14, & tin [frac12, frac34] \ 2t-1, & tin [frac34, 1]end{cases} $$



                              However if you apply the formula above, while we still get a homotopy, but the formula is not as clean (as in we need to divide into 5 cases). To obtain the formula you stated, let's look at the graphs of the intermediate reparametrizations, for each fixed $s_0$, the graph of $phi_{s_0}(t) =1-s_0)t + s_0 phi(t) $ would look like a "sheared up" version of $phi(t)$. So image of the points at which $phi_{s_0}$ are piecewisely defined do not match with the points at which $(alphacdotbeta) cdotgamma$ is piecewisely defined. To make them match we need to "shear" $phi(t)$ to the left.



                              So we should take $tildephi_s(t)$ the inverse function of $(1-s)t+sphi^{-1}(t)$, i.e. $tildephi_s(t)$ is the inverse of $$begin{cases}(1+s)t, & tin[0,frac14] \ t+frac s4, & tin[frac 14,frac 12]\ frac 12(2-s)t +frac s2, & tin[frac 12,1]end{cases}$$



                              Which is given by: $$tildephi_s(t) =begin{cases} frac t{1+s}, & tin[0,frac {s+1}4]\ t-frac s4, & tin[frac{s+1}4,frac{s+2}4]\ frac 2{2-s}t - frac s{2-s}, & tin[frac {s+2}4,1]end{cases} $$



                              The homotopy you provided in the post is then $H(s, t) =[(alphacdot beta)cdot gamma](tildephi_s(t)) $.







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                              answered Jan 18 at 9:53









                              lEmlEm

                              3,2771819




                              3,2771819























                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  I have checked the definition and all axioms of the first homotopy group in this note and in this I also explain the exact homotopy you describe. I hope it helps you...






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    I have checked the definition and all axioms of the first homotopy group in this note and in this I also explain the exact homotopy you describe. I hope it helps you...






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      1












                                      1








                                      1





                                      $begingroup$

                                      I have checked the definition and all axioms of the first homotopy group in this note and in this I also explain the exact homotopy you describe. I hope it helps you...






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      I have checked the definition and all axioms of the first homotopy group in this note and in this I also explain the exact homotopy you describe. I hope it helps you...







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Jan 18 at 17:58









                                      Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

                                      109k347115




                                      109k347115























                                          0












                                          $begingroup$

                                          There is an easier way to do this by using the notion of a "Moore path" as a pair $(f,r)$ where $r in mathbb R, r geqslant 0$ and $f:[0, infty) to X$ is constant $[r, infty)$. This definition is used in the quite old book on Knot Theory by Crowell and Fox. Alternatively, as in Topology and Groupoids, one considers a path of length $r geqslant 0$ to be a map $f:[0, r] to X$. The composite of a path of length $r$ with a path of length $s$ is then, when defined, of length $r+s$. This corresponds intuitively to the idea of path as a "journey". Composition is then associative. We also have paths of length $0$ and in both definitions the composition of paths in $X$ gives a category $PX$.



                                          We also write $s$ for a constant path of length $s$ at $y in X$ and say two paths $f,g$ from $x$ to $y$ in $X$ are equivalent if there are real numbers $s,t geqslant 0$
                                          such that $f+s, g+t$ are homotopic rel end points. This gives the fundamental groupoid $pi_1(X)$.



                                          One easily proves that any path is equivalent to a path of length $1$. This is called normalisation, which is not a process one uses for journeys.



                                          The formulae needed for all this work out much easier than the usual ones, which seems to me a good thing. (I've said all this somewhere else on this site.)






                                          share|cite|improve this answer











                                          $endgroup$


















                                            0












                                            $begingroup$

                                            There is an easier way to do this by using the notion of a "Moore path" as a pair $(f,r)$ where $r in mathbb R, r geqslant 0$ and $f:[0, infty) to X$ is constant $[r, infty)$. This definition is used in the quite old book on Knot Theory by Crowell and Fox. Alternatively, as in Topology and Groupoids, one considers a path of length $r geqslant 0$ to be a map $f:[0, r] to X$. The composite of a path of length $r$ with a path of length $s$ is then, when defined, of length $r+s$. This corresponds intuitively to the idea of path as a "journey". Composition is then associative. We also have paths of length $0$ and in both definitions the composition of paths in $X$ gives a category $PX$.



                                            We also write $s$ for a constant path of length $s$ at $y in X$ and say two paths $f,g$ from $x$ to $y$ in $X$ are equivalent if there are real numbers $s,t geqslant 0$
                                            such that $f+s, g+t$ are homotopic rel end points. This gives the fundamental groupoid $pi_1(X)$.



                                            One easily proves that any path is equivalent to a path of length $1$. This is called normalisation, which is not a process one uses for journeys.



                                            The formulae needed for all this work out much easier than the usual ones, which seems to me a good thing. (I've said all this somewhere else on this site.)






                                            share|cite|improve this answer











                                            $endgroup$
















                                              0












                                              0








                                              0





                                              $begingroup$

                                              There is an easier way to do this by using the notion of a "Moore path" as a pair $(f,r)$ where $r in mathbb R, r geqslant 0$ and $f:[0, infty) to X$ is constant $[r, infty)$. This definition is used in the quite old book on Knot Theory by Crowell and Fox. Alternatively, as in Topology and Groupoids, one considers a path of length $r geqslant 0$ to be a map $f:[0, r] to X$. The composite of a path of length $r$ with a path of length $s$ is then, when defined, of length $r+s$. This corresponds intuitively to the idea of path as a "journey". Composition is then associative. We also have paths of length $0$ and in both definitions the composition of paths in $X$ gives a category $PX$.



                                              We also write $s$ for a constant path of length $s$ at $y in X$ and say two paths $f,g$ from $x$ to $y$ in $X$ are equivalent if there are real numbers $s,t geqslant 0$
                                              such that $f+s, g+t$ are homotopic rel end points. This gives the fundamental groupoid $pi_1(X)$.



                                              One easily proves that any path is equivalent to a path of length $1$. This is called normalisation, which is not a process one uses for journeys.



                                              The formulae needed for all this work out much easier than the usual ones, which seems to me a good thing. (I've said all this somewhere else on this site.)






                                              share|cite|improve this answer











                                              $endgroup$



                                              There is an easier way to do this by using the notion of a "Moore path" as a pair $(f,r)$ where $r in mathbb R, r geqslant 0$ and $f:[0, infty) to X$ is constant $[r, infty)$. This definition is used in the quite old book on Knot Theory by Crowell and Fox. Alternatively, as in Topology and Groupoids, one considers a path of length $r geqslant 0$ to be a map $f:[0, r] to X$. The composite of a path of length $r$ with a path of length $s$ is then, when defined, of length $r+s$. This corresponds intuitively to the idea of path as a "journey". Composition is then associative. We also have paths of length $0$ and in both definitions the composition of paths in $X$ gives a category $PX$.



                                              We also write $s$ for a constant path of length $s$ at $y in X$ and say two paths $f,g$ from $x$ to $y$ in $X$ are equivalent if there are real numbers $s,t geqslant 0$
                                              such that $f+s, g+t$ are homotopic rel end points. This gives the fundamental groupoid $pi_1(X)$.



                                              One easily proves that any path is equivalent to a path of length $1$. This is called normalisation, which is not a process one uses for journeys.



                                              The formulae needed for all this work out much easier than the usual ones, which seems to me a good thing. (I've said all this somewhere else on this site.)







                                              share|cite|improve this answer














                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer








                                              edited Jan 18 at 12:38

























                                              answered Jan 18 at 11:33









                                              Ronnie BrownRonnie Brown

                                              12.1k12938




                                              12.1k12938






























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