Taking the half-derivative of $e^x$












8












$begingroup$


While attempting to teach myself the fractional calculus, I encountered a tragically early roadblock. For non-power rule fractional derivatives, I am having a lot of trouble evaluating for a closed form.



Would someone mind walking me through the process for taking the half-derivative of $$f(x) = e^x$$



Really the most difficult part is evaluating



$$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



but a full hand-holding would be really helpful.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you've written down the integral you actually need help with. At the very least, it should probably have an $e^t$ in the integrand rather than an $e^x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Shouldn't the integral involve $sqrt{x - t}$ rather than $x - t$?
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you 100% sure you have the right integral now? Because had almost wriiten down the second answer with again the wrong integral.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:07






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Don't worry about it.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @craft94, you can do "penance" by upvoting the correct answers to the original version of the question, even though they're no longer relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:12
















8












$begingroup$


While attempting to teach myself the fractional calculus, I encountered a tragically early roadblock. For non-power rule fractional derivatives, I am having a lot of trouble evaluating for a closed form.



Would someone mind walking me through the process for taking the half-derivative of $$f(x) = e^x$$



Really the most difficult part is evaluating



$$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



but a full hand-holding would be really helpful.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you've written down the integral you actually need help with. At the very least, it should probably have an $e^t$ in the integrand rather than an $e^x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Shouldn't the integral involve $sqrt{x - t}$ rather than $x - t$?
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you 100% sure you have the right integral now? Because had almost wriiten down the second answer with again the wrong integral.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:07






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Don't worry about it.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @craft94, you can do "penance" by upvoting the correct answers to the original version of the question, even though they're no longer relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:12














8












8








8


2



$begingroup$


While attempting to teach myself the fractional calculus, I encountered a tragically early roadblock. For non-power rule fractional derivatives, I am having a lot of trouble evaluating for a closed form.



Would someone mind walking me through the process for taking the half-derivative of $$f(x) = e^x$$



Really the most difficult part is evaluating



$$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



but a full hand-holding would be really helpful.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




While attempting to teach myself the fractional calculus, I encountered a tragically early roadblock. For non-power rule fractional derivatives, I am having a lot of trouble evaluating for a closed form.



Would someone mind walking me through the process for taking the half-derivative of $$f(x) = e^x$$



Really the most difficult part is evaluating



$$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



but a full hand-holding would be really helpful.







calculus integration fractional-calculus






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jun 12 '15 at 19:23









wythagoras

21.6k444104




21.6k444104










asked Jun 12 '15 at 16:53









craft94craft94

487




487








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you've written down the integral you actually need help with. At the very least, it should probably have an $e^t$ in the integrand rather than an $e^x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Shouldn't the integral involve $sqrt{x - t}$ rather than $x - t$?
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you 100% sure you have the right integral now? Because had almost wriiten down the second answer with again the wrong integral.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:07






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Don't worry about it.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @craft94, you can do "penance" by upvoting the correct answers to the original version of the question, even though they're no longer relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:12














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you've written down the integral you actually need help with. At the very least, it should probably have an $e^t$ in the integrand rather than an $e^x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Shouldn't the integral involve $sqrt{x - t}$ rather than $x - t$?
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you 100% sure you have the right integral now? Because had almost wriiten down the second answer with again the wrong integral.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:07






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Don't worry about it.
    $endgroup$
    – wythagoras
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @craft94, you can do "penance" by upvoting the correct answers to the original version of the question, even though they're no longer relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Barry Cipra
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:12








2




2




$begingroup$
I don't think you've written down the integral you actually need help with. At the very least, it should probably have an $e^t$ in the integrand rather than an $e^x$.
$endgroup$
– Barry Cipra
Jun 12 '15 at 17:03




$begingroup$
I don't think you've written down the integral you actually need help with. At the very least, it should probably have an $e^t$ in the integrand rather than an $e^x$.
$endgroup$
– Barry Cipra
Jun 12 '15 at 17:03




1




1




$begingroup$
Shouldn't the integral involve $sqrt{x - t}$ rather than $x - t$?
$endgroup$
– anomaly
Jun 12 '15 at 17:05




$begingroup$
Shouldn't the integral involve $sqrt{x - t}$ rather than $x - t$?
$endgroup$
– anomaly
Jun 12 '15 at 17:05




1




1




$begingroup$
Are you 100% sure you have the right integral now? Because had almost wriiten down the second answer with again the wrong integral.
$endgroup$
– wythagoras
Jun 12 '15 at 17:07




$begingroup$
Are you 100% sure you have the right integral now? Because had almost wriiten down the second answer with again the wrong integral.
$endgroup$
– wythagoras
Jun 12 '15 at 17:07




2




2




$begingroup$
Don't worry about it.
$endgroup$
– wythagoras
Jun 12 '15 at 17:09




$begingroup$
Don't worry about it.
$endgroup$
– wythagoras
Jun 12 '15 at 17:09




1




1




$begingroup$
@craft94, you can do "penance" by upvoting the correct answers to the original version of the question, even though they're no longer relevant.
$endgroup$
– Barry Cipra
Jun 12 '15 at 17:12




$begingroup$
@craft94, you can do "penance" by upvoting the correct answers to the original version of the question, even though they're no longer relevant.
$endgroup$
– Barry Cipra
Jun 12 '15 at 17:12










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes


















7












$begingroup$

For the integral: Keep in mind that $x$ is a constant!



$$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



Use the substitution $u=x-t$, then $du=-dt$. This gives:



$$int_0^x -frac{e^{x-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



$$-e^xint_0^x frac{e^{-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



$$-e^xint_0^x u^{-1/2}e^{-u} du$$



$$-e^xgammaleft(frac{1}{2},xright)$$



Where $gamma$ is the incomplete lower gamma function.



This can also be written as
$$-e^x sqrt{x} E_{frac{1}{2}}(x)$$



using the exponential integral function. It has been proven there is no closed form of this function.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    So does that mean that the half-derivative doesn't exist? Or is infinite? I really wish there more intuition to be garnered from fractional-calculus.
    $endgroup$
    – craft94
    Jun 12 '15 at 17:13










  • $begingroup$
    @craft94 It means that there is no closed form.
    $endgroup$
    – user223391
    Jul 23 '15 at 2:29



















4












$begingroup$

Let we assume that $x>0$. Since:
$$ e^x = sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{n!}tag{1} $$
and:
$$ D^{1/2} x^{m} = frac{x^{m-1/2},Gamma!left(m+1right)}{Gamma!left(m+frac{1}{2}right)}tag{2}$$
(look here, for instance) we have:
$$ D^{1/2} e^x = frac{1}{sqrt{x}}sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{Gamma!left(n+frac{1}{2}right)}=frac{1+e^xsqrt{pi x};text{Erf}(sqrt{x})}{sqrt{pi x}}tag{3}$$
where $text{Erf}$ is the usual error function.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt$$
    Where $Gamma(x)$ is the generalized factorial function. This equals
    $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt=e^x cdot operatorname{erf}(sqrt{x})$$
    where $operatorname{erf}(u)$ is the error function. This is more of a definition than a technical thing, so you don't really need to prove the above per se. However the substitution $u=sqrt{x-t}$ and integration by parts brings the above into compliance with
    $$operatorname{erf}(x)={2 over {sqrt{pi}}} cdot int_0^x e^{-t^2} dt$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      If this is really the integral you want, then notice you are integrating with respect to $t$ so treat $x$ as a constant. Then $$int frac{e^x}{x-t} dt = e^xintfrac{1}{x-t} dt$$ and the antiderivative of $frac{1}{x-t}$ with respect to $t$ is easily seen to be $-ln(x-t)+C$. Now evaluate the integral as you normally would with a definite integral.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$





















        -1












        $begingroup$

        This depends on a method and definition used, but all the other answers give unnatural expressions in my view.



        The following definitions give a more natural answer and coincide with each other.



        The first one is based on Newton series interpolation over consecutive integer derivatives:



        $$f^{(s)}(x)=sum_{m=0}^{infty} binom {s}m sum_{k=0}^mbinom mk(-1)^{m-k}f^{(k)}(x)$$



        the other one is based on Forier transform:



        $$f^{(s)}(x)=frac{i}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty} e^{- i omega x}{omega}^s int_{-infty}^{+infty}f(t)e^{iomega t}dt , domega$$



        For $f(x)=e^x$ they both give the same result: the derivative of any order of this function is $e^x$. In other words, this function is invariant regarding differentiation and integration of any order.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes








          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          7












          $begingroup$

          For the integral: Keep in mind that $x$ is a constant!



          $$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



          Use the substitution $u=x-t$, then $du=-dt$. This gives:



          $$int_0^x -frac{e^{x-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x frac{e^{-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x u^{-1/2}e^{-u} du$$



          $$-e^xgammaleft(frac{1}{2},xright)$$



          Where $gamma$ is the incomplete lower gamma function.



          This can also be written as
          $$-e^x sqrt{x} E_{frac{1}{2}}(x)$$



          using the exponential integral function. It has been proven there is no closed form of this function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So does that mean that the half-derivative doesn't exist? Or is infinite? I really wish there more intuition to be garnered from fractional-calculus.
            $endgroup$
            – craft94
            Jun 12 '15 at 17:13










          • $begingroup$
            @craft94 It means that there is no closed form.
            $endgroup$
            – user223391
            Jul 23 '15 at 2:29
















          7












          $begingroup$

          For the integral: Keep in mind that $x$ is a constant!



          $$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



          Use the substitution $u=x-t$, then $du=-dt$. This gives:



          $$int_0^x -frac{e^{x-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x frac{e^{-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x u^{-1/2}e^{-u} du$$



          $$-e^xgammaleft(frac{1}{2},xright)$$



          Where $gamma$ is the incomplete lower gamma function.



          This can also be written as
          $$-e^x sqrt{x} E_{frac{1}{2}}(x)$$



          using the exponential integral function. It has been proven there is no closed form of this function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So does that mean that the half-derivative doesn't exist? Or is infinite? I really wish there more intuition to be garnered from fractional-calculus.
            $endgroup$
            – craft94
            Jun 12 '15 at 17:13










          • $begingroup$
            @craft94 It means that there is no closed form.
            $endgroup$
            – user223391
            Jul 23 '15 at 2:29














          7












          7








          7





          $begingroup$

          For the integral: Keep in mind that $x$ is a constant!



          $$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



          Use the substitution $u=x-t$, then $du=-dt$. This gives:



          $$int_0^x -frac{e^{x-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x frac{e^{-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x u^{-1/2}e^{-u} du$$



          $$-e^xgammaleft(frac{1}{2},xright)$$



          Where $gamma$ is the incomplete lower gamma function.



          This can also be written as
          $$-e^x sqrt{x} E_{frac{1}{2}}(x)$$



          using the exponential integral function. It has been proven there is no closed form of this function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          For the integral: Keep in mind that $x$ is a constant!



          $$int_0^x frac{e^t}{sqrt{x-t}} dt$$



          Use the substitution $u=x-t$, then $du=-dt$. This gives:



          $$int_0^x -frac{e^{x-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x frac{e^{-u}}{sqrt{u}} du$$



          $$-e^xint_0^x u^{-1/2}e^{-u} du$$



          $$-e^xgammaleft(frac{1}{2},xright)$$



          Where $gamma$ is the incomplete lower gamma function.



          This can also be written as
          $$-e^x sqrt{x} E_{frac{1}{2}}(x)$$



          using the exponential integral function. It has been proven there is no closed form of this function.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jun 12 '15 at 17:35

























          answered Jun 12 '15 at 17:01









          wythagoraswythagoras

          21.6k444104




          21.6k444104












          • $begingroup$
            So does that mean that the half-derivative doesn't exist? Or is infinite? I really wish there more intuition to be garnered from fractional-calculus.
            $endgroup$
            – craft94
            Jun 12 '15 at 17:13










          • $begingroup$
            @craft94 It means that there is no closed form.
            $endgroup$
            – user223391
            Jul 23 '15 at 2:29


















          • $begingroup$
            So does that mean that the half-derivative doesn't exist? Or is infinite? I really wish there more intuition to be garnered from fractional-calculus.
            $endgroup$
            – craft94
            Jun 12 '15 at 17:13










          • $begingroup$
            @craft94 It means that there is no closed form.
            $endgroup$
            – user223391
            Jul 23 '15 at 2:29
















          $begingroup$
          So does that mean that the half-derivative doesn't exist? Or is infinite? I really wish there more intuition to be garnered from fractional-calculus.
          $endgroup$
          – craft94
          Jun 12 '15 at 17:13




          $begingroup$
          So does that mean that the half-derivative doesn't exist? Or is infinite? I really wish there more intuition to be garnered from fractional-calculus.
          $endgroup$
          – craft94
          Jun 12 '15 at 17:13












          $begingroup$
          @craft94 It means that there is no closed form.
          $endgroup$
          – user223391
          Jul 23 '15 at 2:29




          $begingroup$
          @craft94 It means that there is no closed form.
          $endgroup$
          – user223391
          Jul 23 '15 at 2:29











          4












          $begingroup$

          Let we assume that $x>0$. Since:
          $$ e^x = sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{n!}tag{1} $$
          and:
          $$ D^{1/2} x^{m} = frac{x^{m-1/2},Gamma!left(m+1right)}{Gamma!left(m+frac{1}{2}right)}tag{2}$$
          (look here, for instance) we have:
          $$ D^{1/2} e^x = frac{1}{sqrt{x}}sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{Gamma!left(n+frac{1}{2}right)}=frac{1+e^xsqrt{pi x};text{Erf}(sqrt{x})}{sqrt{pi x}}tag{3}$$
          where $text{Erf}$ is the usual error function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$


















            4












            $begingroup$

            Let we assume that $x>0$. Since:
            $$ e^x = sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{n!}tag{1} $$
            and:
            $$ D^{1/2} x^{m} = frac{x^{m-1/2},Gamma!left(m+1right)}{Gamma!left(m+frac{1}{2}right)}tag{2}$$
            (look here, for instance) we have:
            $$ D^{1/2} e^x = frac{1}{sqrt{x}}sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{Gamma!left(n+frac{1}{2}right)}=frac{1+e^xsqrt{pi x};text{Erf}(sqrt{x})}{sqrt{pi x}}tag{3}$$
            where $text{Erf}$ is the usual error function.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$
















              4












              4








              4





              $begingroup$

              Let we assume that $x>0$. Since:
              $$ e^x = sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{n!}tag{1} $$
              and:
              $$ D^{1/2} x^{m} = frac{x^{m-1/2},Gamma!left(m+1right)}{Gamma!left(m+frac{1}{2}right)}tag{2}$$
              (look here, for instance) we have:
              $$ D^{1/2} e^x = frac{1}{sqrt{x}}sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{Gamma!left(n+frac{1}{2}right)}=frac{1+e^xsqrt{pi x};text{Erf}(sqrt{x})}{sqrt{pi x}}tag{3}$$
              where $text{Erf}$ is the usual error function.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Let we assume that $x>0$. Since:
              $$ e^x = sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{n!}tag{1} $$
              and:
              $$ D^{1/2} x^{m} = frac{x^{m-1/2},Gamma!left(m+1right)}{Gamma!left(m+frac{1}{2}right)}tag{2}$$
              (look here, for instance) we have:
              $$ D^{1/2} e^x = frac{1}{sqrt{x}}sum_{ngeq 0}frac{x^n}{Gamma!left(n+frac{1}{2}right)}=frac{1+e^xsqrt{pi x};text{Erf}(sqrt{x})}{sqrt{pi x}}tag{3}$$
              where $text{Erf}$ is the usual error function.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Jun 12 '15 at 17:24

























              answered Jun 12 '15 at 17:16









              Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio

              290k33282664




              290k33282664























                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt$$
                  Where $Gamma(x)$ is the generalized factorial function. This equals
                  $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt=e^x cdot operatorname{erf}(sqrt{x})$$
                  where $operatorname{erf}(u)$ is the error function. This is more of a definition than a technical thing, so you don't really need to prove the above per se. However the substitution $u=sqrt{x-t}$ and integration by parts brings the above into compliance with
                  $$operatorname{erf}(x)={2 over {sqrt{pi}}} cdot int_0^x e^{-t^2} dt$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$


















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt$$
                    Where $Gamma(x)$ is the generalized factorial function. This equals
                    $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt=e^x cdot operatorname{erf}(sqrt{x})$$
                    where $operatorname{erf}(u)$ is the error function. This is more of a definition than a technical thing, so you don't really need to prove the above per se. However the substitution $u=sqrt{x-t}$ and integration by parts brings the above into compliance with
                    $$operatorname{erf}(x)={2 over {sqrt{pi}}} cdot int_0^x e^{-t^2} dt$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$
















                      2












                      2








                      2





                      $begingroup$

                      $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt$$
                      Where $Gamma(x)$ is the generalized factorial function. This equals
                      $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt=e^x cdot operatorname{erf}(sqrt{x})$$
                      where $operatorname{erf}(u)$ is the error function. This is more of a definition than a technical thing, so you don't really need to prove the above per se. However the substitution $u=sqrt{x-t}$ and integration by parts brings the above into compliance with
                      $$operatorname{erf}(x)={2 over {sqrt{pi}}} cdot int_0^x e^{-t^2} dt$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt$$
                      Where $Gamma(x)$ is the generalized factorial function. This equals
                      $${1 over {Gamma(1/2)}} cdot {{d} over {dx}} int_0^x {{e^t} over {sqrt {x-t}}} dt=e^x cdot operatorname{erf}(sqrt{x})$$
                      where $operatorname{erf}(u)$ is the error function. This is more of a definition than a technical thing, so you don't really need to prove the above per se. However the substitution $u=sqrt{x-t}$ and integration by parts brings the above into compliance with
                      $$operatorname{erf}(x)={2 over {sqrt{pi}}} cdot int_0^x e^{-t^2} dt$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited May 14 '17 at 13:50









                      Masacroso

                      13.1k41747




                      13.1k41747










                      answered Jun 12 '15 at 16:59









                      Zach466920Zach466920

                      6,23111142




                      6,23111142























                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          If this is really the integral you want, then notice you are integrating with respect to $t$ so treat $x$ as a constant. Then $$int frac{e^x}{x-t} dt = e^xintfrac{1}{x-t} dt$$ and the antiderivative of $frac{1}{x-t}$ with respect to $t$ is easily seen to be $-ln(x-t)+C$. Now evaluate the integral as you normally would with a definite integral.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$


















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            If this is really the integral you want, then notice you are integrating with respect to $t$ so treat $x$ as a constant. Then $$int frac{e^x}{x-t} dt = e^xintfrac{1}{x-t} dt$$ and the antiderivative of $frac{1}{x-t}$ with respect to $t$ is easily seen to be $-ln(x-t)+C$. Now evaluate the integral as you normally would with a definite integral.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              If this is really the integral you want, then notice you are integrating with respect to $t$ so treat $x$ as a constant. Then $$int frac{e^x}{x-t} dt = e^xintfrac{1}{x-t} dt$$ and the antiderivative of $frac{1}{x-t}$ with respect to $t$ is easily seen to be $-ln(x-t)+C$. Now evaluate the integral as you normally would with a definite integral.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              If this is really the integral you want, then notice you are integrating with respect to $t$ so treat $x$ as a constant. Then $$int frac{e^x}{x-t} dt = e^xintfrac{1}{x-t} dt$$ and the antiderivative of $frac{1}{x-t}$ with respect to $t$ is easily seen to be $-ln(x-t)+C$. Now evaluate the integral as you normally would with a definite integral.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Jun 12 '15 at 17:22

























                              answered Jun 12 '15 at 17:00









                              graydadgraydad

                              12.7k61933




                              12.7k61933























                                  -1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  This depends on a method and definition used, but all the other answers give unnatural expressions in my view.



                                  The following definitions give a more natural answer and coincide with each other.



                                  The first one is based on Newton series interpolation over consecutive integer derivatives:



                                  $$f^{(s)}(x)=sum_{m=0}^{infty} binom {s}m sum_{k=0}^mbinom mk(-1)^{m-k}f^{(k)}(x)$$



                                  the other one is based on Forier transform:



                                  $$f^{(s)}(x)=frac{i}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty} e^{- i omega x}{omega}^s int_{-infty}^{+infty}f(t)e^{iomega t}dt , domega$$



                                  For $f(x)=e^x$ they both give the same result: the derivative of any order of this function is $e^x$. In other words, this function is invariant regarding differentiation and integration of any order.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    -1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    This depends on a method and definition used, but all the other answers give unnatural expressions in my view.



                                    The following definitions give a more natural answer and coincide with each other.



                                    The first one is based on Newton series interpolation over consecutive integer derivatives:



                                    $$f^{(s)}(x)=sum_{m=0}^{infty} binom {s}m sum_{k=0}^mbinom mk(-1)^{m-k}f^{(k)}(x)$$



                                    the other one is based on Forier transform:



                                    $$f^{(s)}(x)=frac{i}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty} e^{- i omega x}{omega}^s int_{-infty}^{+infty}f(t)e^{iomega t}dt , domega$$



                                    For $f(x)=e^x$ they both give the same result: the derivative of any order of this function is $e^x$. In other words, this function is invariant regarding differentiation and integration of any order.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      -1












                                      -1








                                      -1





                                      $begingroup$

                                      This depends on a method and definition used, but all the other answers give unnatural expressions in my view.



                                      The following definitions give a more natural answer and coincide with each other.



                                      The first one is based on Newton series interpolation over consecutive integer derivatives:



                                      $$f^{(s)}(x)=sum_{m=0}^{infty} binom {s}m sum_{k=0}^mbinom mk(-1)^{m-k}f^{(k)}(x)$$



                                      the other one is based on Forier transform:



                                      $$f^{(s)}(x)=frac{i}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty} e^{- i omega x}{omega}^s int_{-infty}^{+infty}f(t)e^{iomega t}dt , domega$$



                                      For $f(x)=e^x$ they both give the same result: the derivative of any order of this function is $e^x$. In other words, this function is invariant regarding differentiation and integration of any order.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      This depends on a method and definition used, but all the other answers give unnatural expressions in my view.



                                      The following definitions give a more natural answer and coincide with each other.



                                      The first one is based on Newton series interpolation over consecutive integer derivatives:



                                      $$f^{(s)}(x)=sum_{m=0}^{infty} binom {s}m sum_{k=0}^mbinom mk(-1)^{m-k}f^{(k)}(x)$$



                                      the other one is based on Forier transform:



                                      $$f^{(s)}(x)=frac{i}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty} e^{- i omega x}{omega}^s int_{-infty}^{+infty}f(t)e^{iomega t}dt , domega$$



                                      For $f(x)=e^x$ they both give the same result: the derivative of any order of this function is $e^x$. In other words, this function is invariant regarding differentiation and integration of any order.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Jan 21 at 21:11









                                      AnixxAnixx

                                      3,16912038




                                      3,16912038






























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