Liouville's theorem for harmonic functions












2














I was reading the proof of Liouville's theorem for harmonic functions (in $mathbb{R}^n$) in Wikipedia, but I could not understand where do they use in that proof the assumption that $f$ is bounded.



The proof -



enter image description here



Taken from - https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harmonic_function










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    2














    I was reading the proof of Liouville's theorem for harmonic functions (in $mathbb{R}^n$) in Wikipedia, but I could not understand where do they use in that proof the assumption that $f$ is bounded.



    The proof -



    enter image description here



    Taken from - https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harmonic_function










    share|cite|improve this question

























      2












      2








      2







      I was reading the proof of Liouville's theorem for harmonic functions (in $mathbb{R}^n$) in Wikipedia, but I could not understand where do they use in that proof the assumption that $f$ is bounded.



      The proof -



      enter image description here



      Taken from - https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harmonic_function










      share|cite|improve this question













      I was reading the proof of Liouville's theorem for harmonic functions (in $mathbb{R}^n$) in Wikipedia, but I could not understand where do they use in that proof the assumption that $f$ is bounded.



      The proof -



      enter image description here



      Taken from - https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harmonic_function







      calculus integration multivariable-calculus harmonic-functions






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      asked 2 days ago









      ChikChakChikChak

      790418




      790418






















          2 Answers
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          3














          Jose's answer gives details of Nelson's original reasoning, but they aren't quite the same as the details in the proof on Wikipedia.



          The crucial point in the latter is that we assume, without loss of generality, that $f$ is a nonnegative function (we can assume this because we assumed $f$ is bounded from above or below). Then nonnegativity is used in the first displayed inequality to say that an integral over $B_r(y)$ must be at least as large as the integral over $B_R(x)$, since the latter is a subset of the former.






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            2














            The boundeness of $f$ is used in the proof of the fact that, given two points $x$ and $y$, the average value of $f$ on a large disk centered at $x$ and the average value of $f$ on a large disk (with the same radius) centered at $y$ will go to the same value as the radius goes to $infty$. When that happens, the symmetric difference of the two discs gets smaller and smaller in proportion to their intersection. Since $f$ is bounded, the average of the function on one disc is then essentially the average of the function on their intersection. Therefore, as the radius goes to infinity, the average over either disc goes to the same number.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • So you're saying that the average value goes to a certain value as the radius goes to $infty$ but the average value on a ball centered at $x$ is in fact fixed $f(x)$, and this average property comes from the fact that $f$ is Harmonic, no boundedness is involved. So I don't get you.
              – mouthetics
              2 days ago








            • 1




              @mouthetics Boundedness is involved when you want to say that the value at $x$ is "essentially" the average over the intersection of the discs (more specifically, that the average over the intersection tends to $f(x)$)
              – Wojowu
              2 days ago











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            2 Answers
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            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

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            active

            oldest

            votes









            3














            Jose's answer gives details of Nelson's original reasoning, but they aren't quite the same as the details in the proof on Wikipedia.



            The crucial point in the latter is that we assume, without loss of generality, that $f$ is a nonnegative function (we can assume this because we assumed $f$ is bounded from above or below). Then nonnegativity is used in the first displayed inequality to say that an integral over $B_r(y)$ must be at least as large as the integral over $B_R(x)$, since the latter is a subset of the former.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              3














              Jose's answer gives details of Nelson's original reasoning, but they aren't quite the same as the details in the proof on Wikipedia.



              The crucial point in the latter is that we assume, without loss of generality, that $f$ is a nonnegative function (we can assume this because we assumed $f$ is bounded from above or below). Then nonnegativity is used in the first displayed inequality to say that an integral over $B_r(y)$ must be at least as large as the integral over $B_R(x)$, since the latter is a subset of the former.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                3












                3








                3






                Jose's answer gives details of Nelson's original reasoning, but they aren't quite the same as the details in the proof on Wikipedia.



                The crucial point in the latter is that we assume, without loss of generality, that $f$ is a nonnegative function (we can assume this because we assumed $f$ is bounded from above or below). Then nonnegativity is used in the first displayed inequality to say that an integral over $B_r(y)$ must be at least as large as the integral over $B_R(x)$, since the latter is a subset of the former.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Jose's answer gives details of Nelson's original reasoning, but they aren't quite the same as the details in the proof on Wikipedia.



                The crucial point in the latter is that we assume, without loss of generality, that $f$ is a nonnegative function (we can assume this because we assumed $f$ is bounded from above or below). Then nonnegativity is used in the first displayed inequality to say that an integral over $B_r(y)$ must be at least as large as the integral over $B_R(x)$, since the latter is a subset of the former.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 2 days ago









                WojowuWojowu

                17.2k22565




                17.2k22565























                    2














                    The boundeness of $f$ is used in the proof of the fact that, given two points $x$ and $y$, the average value of $f$ on a large disk centered at $x$ and the average value of $f$ on a large disk (with the same radius) centered at $y$ will go to the same value as the radius goes to $infty$. When that happens, the symmetric difference of the two discs gets smaller and smaller in proportion to their intersection. Since $f$ is bounded, the average of the function on one disc is then essentially the average of the function on their intersection. Therefore, as the radius goes to infinity, the average over either disc goes to the same number.






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • So you're saying that the average value goes to a certain value as the radius goes to $infty$ but the average value on a ball centered at $x$ is in fact fixed $f(x)$, and this average property comes from the fact that $f$ is Harmonic, no boundedness is involved. So I don't get you.
                      – mouthetics
                      2 days ago








                    • 1




                      @mouthetics Boundedness is involved when you want to say that the value at $x$ is "essentially" the average over the intersection of the discs (more specifically, that the average over the intersection tends to $f(x)$)
                      – Wojowu
                      2 days ago
















                    2














                    The boundeness of $f$ is used in the proof of the fact that, given two points $x$ and $y$, the average value of $f$ on a large disk centered at $x$ and the average value of $f$ on a large disk (with the same radius) centered at $y$ will go to the same value as the radius goes to $infty$. When that happens, the symmetric difference of the two discs gets smaller and smaller in proportion to their intersection. Since $f$ is bounded, the average of the function on one disc is then essentially the average of the function on their intersection. Therefore, as the radius goes to infinity, the average over either disc goes to the same number.






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • So you're saying that the average value goes to a certain value as the radius goes to $infty$ but the average value on a ball centered at $x$ is in fact fixed $f(x)$, and this average property comes from the fact that $f$ is Harmonic, no boundedness is involved. So I don't get you.
                      – mouthetics
                      2 days ago








                    • 1




                      @mouthetics Boundedness is involved when you want to say that the value at $x$ is "essentially" the average over the intersection of the discs (more specifically, that the average over the intersection tends to $f(x)$)
                      – Wojowu
                      2 days ago














                    2












                    2








                    2






                    The boundeness of $f$ is used in the proof of the fact that, given two points $x$ and $y$, the average value of $f$ on a large disk centered at $x$ and the average value of $f$ on a large disk (with the same radius) centered at $y$ will go to the same value as the radius goes to $infty$. When that happens, the symmetric difference of the two discs gets smaller and smaller in proportion to their intersection. Since $f$ is bounded, the average of the function on one disc is then essentially the average of the function on their intersection. Therefore, as the radius goes to infinity, the average over either disc goes to the same number.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    The boundeness of $f$ is used in the proof of the fact that, given two points $x$ and $y$, the average value of $f$ on a large disk centered at $x$ and the average value of $f$ on a large disk (with the same radius) centered at $y$ will go to the same value as the radius goes to $infty$. When that happens, the symmetric difference of the two discs gets smaller and smaller in proportion to their intersection. Since $f$ is bounded, the average of the function on one disc is then essentially the average of the function on their intersection. Therefore, as the radius goes to infinity, the average over either disc goes to the same number.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 2 days ago









                    José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                    152k22123226




                    152k22123226












                    • So you're saying that the average value goes to a certain value as the radius goes to $infty$ but the average value on a ball centered at $x$ is in fact fixed $f(x)$, and this average property comes from the fact that $f$ is Harmonic, no boundedness is involved. So I don't get you.
                      – mouthetics
                      2 days ago








                    • 1




                      @mouthetics Boundedness is involved when you want to say that the value at $x$ is "essentially" the average over the intersection of the discs (more specifically, that the average over the intersection tends to $f(x)$)
                      – Wojowu
                      2 days ago


















                    • So you're saying that the average value goes to a certain value as the radius goes to $infty$ but the average value on a ball centered at $x$ is in fact fixed $f(x)$, and this average property comes from the fact that $f$ is Harmonic, no boundedness is involved. So I don't get you.
                      – mouthetics
                      2 days ago








                    • 1




                      @mouthetics Boundedness is involved when you want to say that the value at $x$ is "essentially" the average over the intersection of the discs (more specifically, that the average over the intersection tends to $f(x)$)
                      – Wojowu
                      2 days ago
















                    So you're saying that the average value goes to a certain value as the radius goes to $infty$ but the average value on a ball centered at $x$ is in fact fixed $f(x)$, and this average property comes from the fact that $f$ is Harmonic, no boundedness is involved. So I don't get you.
                    – mouthetics
                    2 days ago






                    So you're saying that the average value goes to a certain value as the radius goes to $infty$ but the average value on a ball centered at $x$ is in fact fixed $f(x)$, and this average property comes from the fact that $f$ is Harmonic, no boundedness is involved. So I don't get you.
                    – mouthetics
                    2 days ago






                    1




                    1




                    @mouthetics Boundedness is involved when you want to say that the value at $x$ is "essentially" the average over the intersection of the discs (more specifically, that the average over the intersection tends to $f(x)$)
                    – Wojowu
                    2 days ago




                    @mouthetics Boundedness is involved when you want to say that the value at $x$ is "essentially" the average over the intersection of the discs (more specifically, that the average over the intersection tends to $f(x)$)
                    – Wojowu
                    2 days ago


















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