Limit of the average of a sequence of functions












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$begingroup$


Let $B(epsilon)$ be the ball of radius $epsilon>0$ in $ mathbb{R}^{n} $ centered at the origin. Let $phi_{epsilon}$ be a test function, $geq0 $ and $leq 1$ with support in $B(epsilon)$ that is equal to 1 on the closure of $B(epsilon/2)$, and let $f$ be a continuous function at a neighborhood of the origin. Can we say that
$$lim_{epsilonto0}frac{1}{m(B(epsilon))}int_{B(epsilon)}f(x) phi_{epsilon}(x)dx=f(0)? $$ ($m(B(epsilon))$ is the measure of the ball)










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You have probably copied the result wrongly. If $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on $B(x,epsilon)$ then this is true. But this is not true the way it is stated. It is necessary that $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on a large enough neighborhood of $0$ for thus to be true.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:48












  • $begingroup$
    I edited. What do you think now?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 4:52










  • $begingroup$
    It is still false.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic idea is: under the given hypothesis $phi_{epsilon}$ can be too small in, say $B(epsilon)setminus B(3epsilon/4)$ in which case the limit on the left can be much smaller then $f(0)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 12:50












  • $begingroup$
    Is it possible to construct a test function $phi_{epsilon}$ so that $phi_{epsilon}$ is in $ B(epsilon)$ and the above equation holds?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 22:11
















0












$begingroup$


Let $B(epsilon)$ be the ball of radius $epsilon>0$ in $ mathbb{R}^{n} $ centered at the origin. Let $phi_{epsilon}$ be a test function, $geq0 $ and $leq 1$ with support in $B(epsilon)$ that is equal to 1 on the closure of $B(epsilon/2)$, and let $f$ be a continuous function at a neighborhood of the origin. Can we say that
$$lim_{epsilonto0}frac{1}{m(B(epsilon))}int_{B(epsilon)}f(x) phi_{epsilon}(x)dx=f(0)? $$ ($m(B(epsilon))$ is the measure of the ball)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You have probably copied the result wrongly. If $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on $B(x,epsilon)$ then this is true. But this is not true the way it is stated. It is necessary that $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on a large enough neighborhood of $0$ for thus to be true.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:48












  • $begingroup$
    I edited. What do you think now?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 4:52










  • $begingroup$
    It is still false.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic idea is: under the given hypothesis $phi_{epsilon}$ can be too small in, say $B(epsilon)setminus B(3epsilon/4)$ in which case the limit on the left can be much smaller then $f(0)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 12:50












  • $begingroup$
    Is it possible to construct a test function $phi_{epsilon}$ so that $phi_{epsilon}$ is in $ B(epsilon)$ and the above equation holds?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 22:11














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $B(epsilon)$ be the ball of radius $epsilon>0$ in $ mathbb{R}^{n} $ centered at the origin. Let $phi_{epsilon}$ be a test function, $geq0 $ and $leq 1$ with support in $B(epsilon)$ that is equal to 1 on the closure of $B(epsilon/2)$, and let $f$ be a continuous function at a neighborhood of the origin. Can we say that
$$lim_{epsilonto0}frac{1}{m(B(epsilon))}int_{B(epsilon)}f(x) phi_{epsilon}(x)dx=f(0)? $$ ($m(B(epsilon))$ is the measure of the ball)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $B(epsilon)$ be the ball of radius $epsilon>0$ in $ mathbb{R}^{n} $ centered at the origin. Let $phi_{epsilon}$ be a test function, $geq0 $ and $leq 1$ with support in $B(epsilon)$ that is equal to 1 on the closure of $B(epsilon/2)$, and let $f$ be a continuous function at a neighborhood of the origin. Can we say that
$$lim_{epsilonto0}frac{1}{m(B(epsilon))}int_{B(epsilon)}f(x) phi_{epsilon}(x)dx=f(0)? $$ ($m(B(epsilon))$ is the measure of the ball)







real-analysis






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 13 at 4:51







M. Rahmat

















asked Jan 13 at 4:09









M. RahmatM. Rahmat

291212




291212












  • $begingroup$
    You have probably copied the result wrongly. If $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on $B(x,epsilon)$ then this is true. But this is not true the way it is stated. It is necessary that $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on a large enough neighborhood of $0$ for thus to be true.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:48












  • $begingroup$
    I edited. What do you think now?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 4:52










  • $begingroup$
    It is still false.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic idea is: under the given hypothesis $phi_{epsilon}$ can be too small in, say $B(epsilon)setminus B(3epsilon/4)$ in which case the limit on the left can be much smaller then $f(0)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 12:50












  • $begingroup$
    Is it possible to construct a test function $phi_{epsilon}$ so that $phi_{epsilon}$ is in $ B(epsilon)$ and the above equation holds?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 22:11


















  • $begingroup$
    You have probably copied the result wrongly. If $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on $B(x,epsilon)$ then this is true. But this is not true the way it is stated. It is necessary that $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on a large enough neighborhood of $0$ for thus to be true.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:48












  • $begingroup$
    I edited. What do you think now?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 4:52










  • $begingroup$
    It is still false.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 4:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic idea is: under the given hypothesis $phi_{epsilon}$ can be too small in, say $B(epsilon)setminus B(3epsilon/4)$ in which case the limit on the left can be much smaller then $f(0)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 13 at 12:50












  • $begingroup$
    Is it possible to construct a test function $phi_{epsilon}$ so that $phi_{epsilon}$ is in $ B(epsilon)$ and the above equation holds?
    $endgroup$
    – M. Rahmat
    Jan 13 at 22:11
















$begingroup$
You have probably copied the result wrongly. If $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on $B(x,epsilon)$ then this is true. But this is not true the way it is stated. It is necessary that $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on a large enough neighborhood of $0$ for thus to be true.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 13 at 4:48






$begingroup$
You have probably copied the result wrongly. If $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on $B(x,epsilon)$ then this is true. But this is not true the way it is stated. It is necessary that $phi_{epsilon}=1$ on a large enough neighborhood of $0$ for thus to be true.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 13 at 4:48














$begingroup$
I edited. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– M. Rahmat
Jan 13 at 4:52




$begingroup$
I edited. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– M. Rahmat
Jan 13 at 4:52












$begingroup$
It is still false.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 13 at 4:53




$begingroup$
It is still false.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 13 at 4:53




1




1




$begingroup$
The basic idea is: under the given hypothesis $phi_{epsilon}$ can be too small in, say $B(epsilon)setminus B(3epsilon/4)$ in which case the limit on the left can be much smaller then $f(0)$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 13 at 12:50






$begingroup$
The basic idea is: under the given hypothesis $phi_{epsilon}$ can be too small in, say $B(epsilon)setminus B(3epsilon/4)$ in which case the limit on the left can be much smaller then $f(0)$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 13 at 12:50














$begingroup$
Is it possible to construct a test function $phi_{epsilon}$ so that $phi_{epsilon}$ is in $ B(epsilon)$ and the above equation holds?
$endgroup$
– M. Rahmat
Jan 13 at 22:11




$begingroup$
Is it possible to construct a test function $phi_{epsilon}$ so that $phi_{epsilon}$ is in $ B(epsilon)$ and the above equation holds?
$endgroup$
– M. Rahmat
Jan 13 at 22:11










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