How do you simplify $3^{frac{(-1)^n + 1}{2}}$












3












$begingroup$


I am solving non linear recursive relations and I stumbled upon this: $$x(n)*x(n+1)=3, x(0)=3$$
If you start calculating the values after $0$ you will notice that a pattern emerges: $$x(0) = 3$$ $$x(1) = 1$$ $$x(2) = 3$$ $$x(3) = 1$$ $$...$$
From this I concluded that $x(n) = (-1)^n + 2$



BUT! If you try to solve the problem more conservatively you will convert the relation to a linear one:
$log_{3} (x(n)) + log_{3}(x(n+1)) = 1$ $Set g(n)=log_{3}(x(n)), g(0) = log_{3}(x(0))=1$



$g(n+1) + g(n) = 1 Rightarrow g(n)=frac{1}{2}*(-1)^n + frac{1}{2} Rightarrow x(n) = 3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} $



The fact that $3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} = (-1)^n + 2$ can also be confirmed by graphing the two functions. My question is: is there a way to go from the one to the other instead of just proving that they are equal?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    I am solving non linear recursive relations and I stumbled upon this: $$x(n)*x(n+1)=3, x(0)=3$$
    If you start calculating the values after $0$ you will notice that a pattern emerges: $$x(0) = 3$$ $$x(1) = 1$$ $$x(2) = 3$$ $$x(3) = 1$$ $$...$$
    From this I concluded that $x(n) = (-1)^n + 2$



    BUT! If you try to solve the problem more conservatively you will convert the relation to a linear one:
    $log_{3} (x(n)) + log_{3}(x(n+1)) = 1$ $Set g(n)=log_{3}(x(n)), g(0) = log_{3}(x(0))=1$



    $g(n+1) + g(n) = 1 Rightarrow g(n)=frac{1}{2}*(-1)^n + frac{1}{2} Rightarrow x(n) = 3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} $



    The fact that $3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} = (-1)^n + 2$ can also be confirmed by graphing the two functions. My question is: is there a way to go from the one to the other instead of just proving that they are equal?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      I am solving non linear recursive relations and I stumbled upon this: $$x(n)*x(n+1)=3, x(0)=3$$
      If you start calculating the values after $0$ you will notice that a pattern emerges: $$x(0) = 3$$ $$x(1) = 1$$ $$x(2) = 3$$ $$x(3) = 1$$ $$...$$
      From this I concluded that $x(n) = (-1)^n + 2$



      BUT! If you try to solve the problem more conservatively you will convert the relation to a linear one:
      $log_{3} (x(n)) + log_{3}(x(n+1)) = 1$ $Set g(n)=log_{3}(x(n)), g(0) = log_{3}(x(0))=1$



      $g(n+1) + g(n) = 1 Rightarrow g(n)=frac{1}{2}*(-1)^n + frac{1}{2} Rightarrow x(n) = 3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} $



      The fact that $3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} = (-1)^n + 2$ can also be confirmed by graphing the two functions. My question is: is there a way to go from the one to the other instead of just proving that they are equal?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am solving non linear recursive relations and I stumbled upon this: $$x(n)*x(n+1)=3, x(0)=3$$
      If you start calculating the values after $0$ you will notice that a pattern emerges: $$x(0) = 3$$ $$x(1) = 1$$ $$x(2) = 3$$ $$x(3) = 1$$ $$...$$
      From this I concluded that $x(n) = (-1)^n + 2$



      BUT! If you try to solve the problem more conservatively you will convert the relation to a linear one:
      $log_{3} (x(n)) + log_{3}(x(n+1)) = 1$ $Set g(n)=log_{3}(x(n)), g(0) = log_{3}(x(0))=1$



      $g(n+1) + g(n) = 1 Rightarrow g(n)=frac{1}{2}*(-1)^n + frac{1}{2} Rightarrow x(n) = 3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} $



      The fact that $3^{frac{1}{2}*((-1)^n + 1)} = (-1)^n + 2$ can also be confirmed by graphing the two functions. My question is: is there a way to go from the one to the other instead of just proving that they are equal?







      linear-algebra sequences-and-series recurrence-relations






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




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      edited Jan 13 at 3:52







      Mario Drouga

















      asked Jan 13 at 3:44









      Mario DrougaMario Drouga

      235




      235






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          You're not going to be able to manipulate one into the other because they're not the same function for non-integer input. For example, let $n = 1/2$ then



          $$ (-1)^{1/2} + 2 = 2 + i $$



          and



          $$ 3^{frac{(-1)^{1/2} + 1}2} = e^{frac{1 + i}{2}log 3} = 3^{1/2}[cos(tfrac{1}2log 3) + isin(tfrac{1}2log 3)] approx 1.47724 + 0.904296 i $$



          If you don't know a lot about complex numbers you're going to just have to take my word for now.



          Here's a simpler example:



          $$ cos(n pi) = (-1)^n $$



          for integer values of $n$. But $cos(frac12pi) = 0$ and $(-1)^{1/2} = i$.



          So if you have two functions that are equal for integer inputs but are unequal for non-integer inputs. At some point in "simplifying" you will want to use the fact that your inputs are integers. Here the property is that



          $$ (-1)^n = begin{cases} 1 & n text{ is even} \ -1 & n text{ is odd} end{cases}. $$



          And because $(-1)^n$ is in some sense defined based on whether or not $n$ is even or odd, in order to simplify, you're going to want to separate your computation into two cases: when $n$ is even and when $n$ is odd.



          Here when you separate the two cases it is easy to see that for even integers, both functions are equal to $3$ and for odd integers, equal to $1$. So they represent the same function on the integers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Would graphing the functions and using the z axis as the complex plane reveal the trig function? am I only seeing the points are which cos goes through the RxR plane when I graph it as a real function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 5:05






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Mario Possibly. Personally I find it easier to plot the real part and complex parts separately just in the xy-plane. For instance $(-1)^x = e^{x log(-1)} = e^{pi x i} = cos(pi x) + i sin(pi x)$. Converting $3^{frac{(-1)^x + 1}2}$ to a real and imaginary part will be a lot messier.
            $endgroup$
            – Trevor Gunn
            Jan 13 at 5:29



















          3












          $begingroup$

          This is of the same type of situation as saying that $2$ and $1 + 1$ are the same. They are different expressions for the same value.



          In your case, let $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$, for $n ge 0 text{ and } n in N$. For even values of $n$, the value is $1 + 2 = 3$ and for odd values of $n$, the value is $-1 + 3 = 1$.



          Similarly, let $hleft(nright) = 3^{frac{left(-1right)^n + 1}{2}}$. For $n$ being even here, the value of $left(-1right)^n = 1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(1 + 1 right)}{2}} = 3^1 = 3$. With odd values of $n$, $left(-1right)^n = -1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(-1 + 1right)}{2}} = 3^0 = 1$.



          As you can see, the $2$ functions always have the same value for all non-negative values of $n$. They are just different ways to express the set of results. However, I prefer $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$ as, to me at least, it's simpler to understand and use.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You've proven that both functions are equal. Can you manipulate the form of function h(n) to get function f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:13










          • $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga I'm not quite sure what you mean by "manipulate". How would you, for example, propose to "manipulate" $1 + 1$ to show it's the same as $2$?
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:17












          • $begingroup$
            What if you haven't arrived to the solution of f(n)? Would you be able to simplify g(n) enough to get you to f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga The most basic of "simplifications" are the numeric values themselves, just like $2$ is usually consider simpler than $1 + 1$. With the set of values you got, there are very many different ways to represent them, with you just using $2$. In general, don't worry about determining more than $1$ way to specify results, much less figuring out how to go directly from one to another. Instead, you would normally just try to find a relatively simple & straightforward way to represent your results & use this, with the understanding that it's not the one & only unique way to do it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:22













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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          4












          $begingroup$

          You're not going to be able to manipulate one into the other because they're not the same function for non-integer input. For example, let $n = 1/2$ then



          $$ (-1)^{1/2} + 2 = 2 + i $$



          and



          $$ 3^{frac{(-1)^{1/2} + 1}2} = e^{frac{1 + i}{2}log 3} = 3^{1/2}[cos(tfrac{1}2log 3) + isin(tfrac{1}2log 3)] approx 1.47724 + 0.904296 i $$



          If you don't know a lot about complex numbers you're going to just have to take my word for now.



          Here's a simpler example:



          $$ cos(n pi) = (-1)^n $$



          for integer values of $n$. But $cos(frac12pi) = 0$ and $(-1)^{1/2} = i$.



          So if you have two functions that are equal for integer inputs but are unequal for non-integer inputs. At some point in "simplifying" you will want to use the fact that your inputs are integers. Here the property is that



          $$ (-1)^n = begin{cases} 1 & n text{ is even} \ -1 & n text{ is odd} end{cases}. $$



          And because $(-1)^n$ is in some sense defined based on whether or not $n$ is even or odd, in order to simplify, you're going to want to separate your computation into two cases: when $n$ is even and when $n$ is odd.



          Here when you separate the two cases it is easy to see that for even integers, both functions are equal to $3$ and for odd integers, equal to $1$. So they represent the same function on the integers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Would graphing the functions and using the z axis as the complex plane reveal the trig function? am I only seeing the points are which cos goes through the RxR plane when I graph it as a real function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 5:05






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Mario Possibly. Personally I find it easier to plot the real part and complex parts separately just in the xy-plane. For instance $(-1)^x = e^{x log(-1)} = e^{pi x i} = cos(pi x) + i sin(pi x)$. Converting $3^{frac{(-1)^x + 1}2}$ to a real and imaginary part will be a lot messier.
            $endgroup$
            – Trevor Gunn
            Jan 13 at 5:29
















          4












          $begingroup$

          You're not going to be able to manipulate one into the other because they're not the same function for non-integer input. For example, let $n = 1/2$ then



          $$ (-1)^{1/2} + 2 = 2 + i $$



          and



          $$ 3^{frac{(-1)^{1/2} + 1}2} = e^{frac{1 + i}{2}log 3} = 3^{1/2}[cos(tfrac{1}2log 3) + isin(tfrac{1}2log 3)] approx 1.47724 + 0.904296 i $$



          If you don't know a lot about complex numbers you're going to just have to take my word for now.



          Here's a simpler example:



          $$ cos(n pi) = (-1)^n $$



          for integer values of $n$. But $cos(frac12pi) = 0$ and $(-1)^{1/2} = i$.



          So if you have two functions that are equal for integer inputs but are unequal for non-integer inputs. At some point in "simplifying" you will want to use the fact that your inputs are integers. Here the property is that



          $$ (-1)^n = begin{cases} 1 & n text{ is even} \ -1 & n text{ is odd} end{cases}. $$



          And because $(-1)^n$ is in some sense defined based on whether or not $n$ is even or odd, in order to simplify, you're going to want to separate your computation into two cases: when $n$ is even and when $n$ is odd.



          Here when you separate the two cases it is easy to see that for even integers, both functions are equal to $3$ and for odd integers, equal to $1$. So they represent the same function on the integers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Would graphing the functions and using the z axis as the complex plane reveal the trig function? am I only seeing the points are which cos goes through the RxR plane when I graph it as a real function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 5:05






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Mario Possibly. Personally I find it easier to plot the real part and complex parts separately just in the xy-plane. For instance $(-1)^x = e^{x log(-1)} = e^{pi x i} = cos(pi x) + i sin(pi x)$. Converting $3^{frac{(-1)^x + 1}2}$ to a real and imaginary part will be a lot messier.
            $endgroup$
            – Trevor Gunn
            Jan 13 at 5:29














          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          You're not going to be able to manipulate one into the other because they're not the same function for non-integer input. For example, let $n = 1/2$ then



          $$ (-1)^{1/2} + 2 = 2 + i $$



          and



          $$ 3^{frac{(-1)^{1/2} + 1}2} = e^{frac{1 + i}{2}log 3} = 3^{1/2}[cos(tfrac{1}2log 3) + isin(tfrac{1}2log 3)] approx 1.47724 + 0.904296 i $$



          If you don't know a lot about complex numbers you're going to just have to take my word for now.



          Here's a simpler example:



          $$ cos(n pi) = (-1)^n $$



          for integer values of $n$. But $cos(frac12pi) = 0$ and $(-1)^{1/2} = i$.



          So if you have two functions that are equal for integer inputs but are unequal for non-integer inputs. At some point in "simplifying" you will want to use the fact that your inputs are integers. Here the property is that



          $$ (-1)^n = begin{cases} 1 & n text{ is even} \ -1 & n text{ is odd} end{cases}. $$



          And because $(-1)^n$ is in some sense defined based on whether or not $n$ is even or odd, in order to simplify, you're going to want to separate your computation into two cases: when $n$ is even and when $n$ is odd.



          Here when you separate the two cases it is easy to see that for even integers, both functions are equal to $3$ and for odd integers, equal to $1$. So they represent the same function on the integers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          You're not going to be able to manipulate one into the other because they're not the same function for non-integer input. For example, let $n = 1/2$ then



          $$ (-1)^{1/2} + 2 = 2 + i $$



          and



          $$ 3^{frac{(-1)^{1/2} + 1}2} = e^{frac{1 + i}{2}log 3} = 3^{1/2}[cos(tfrac{1}2log 3) + isin(tfrac{1}2log 3)] approx 1.47724 + 0.904296 i $$



          If you don't know a lot about complex numbers you're going to just have to take my word for now.



          Here's a simpler example:



          $$ cos(n pi) = (-1)^n $$



          for integer values of $n$. But $cos(frac12pi) = 0$ and $(-1)^{1/2} = i$.



          So if you have two functions that are equal for integer inputs but are unequal for non-integer inputs. At some point in "simplifying" you will want to use the fact that your inputs are integers. Here the property is that



          $$ (-1)^n = begin{cases} 1 & n text{ is even} \ -1 & n text{ is odd} end{cases}. $$



          And because $(-1)^n$ is in some sense defined based on whether or not $n$ is even or odd, in order to simplify, you're going to want to separate your computation into two cases: when $n$ is even and when $n$ is odd.



          Here when you separate the two cases it is easy to see that for even integers, both functions are equal to $3$ and for odd integers, equal to $1$. So they represent the same function on the integers.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 13 at 4:33









          Trevor GunnTrevor Gunn

          14.4k32046




          14.4k32046












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Would graphing the functions and using the z axis as the complex plane reveal the trig function? am I only seeing the points are which cos goes through the RxR plane when I graph it as a real function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 5:05






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Mario Possibly. Personally I find it easier to plot the real part and complex parts separately just in the xy-plane. For instance $(-1)^x = e^{x log(-1)} = e^{pi x i} = cos(pi x) + i sin(pi x)$. Converting $3^{frac{(-1)^x + 1}2}$ to a real and imaginary part will be a lot messier.
            $endgroup$
            – Trevor Gunn
            Jan 13 at 5:29


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Would graphing the functions and using the z axis as the complex plane reveal the trig function? am I only seeing the points are which cos goes through the RxR plane when I graph it as a real function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 5:05






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Mario Possibly. Personally I find it easier to plot the real part and complex parts separately just in the xy-plane. For instance $(-1)^x = e^{x log(-1)} = e^{pi x i} = cos(pi x) + i sin(pi x)$. Converting $3^{frac{(-1)^x + 1}2}$ to a real and imaginary part will be a lot messier.
            $endgroup$
            – Trevor Gunn
            Jan 13 at 5:29
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you! Would graphing the functions and using the z axis as the complex plane reveal the trig function? am I only seeing the points are which cos goes through the RxR plane when I graph it as a real function?
          $endgroup$
          – Mario Drouga
          Jan 13 at 5:05




          $begingroup$
          Thank you! Would graphing the functions and using the z axis as the complex plane reveal the trig function? am I only seeing the points are which cos goes through the RxR plane when I graph it as a real function?
          $endgroup$
          – Mario Drouga
          Jan 13 at 5:05




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @Mario Possibly. Personally I find it easier to plot the real part and complex parts separately just in the xy-plane. For instance $(-1)^x = e^{x log(-1)} = e^{pi x i} = cos(pi x) + i sin(pi x)$. Converting $3^{frac{(-1)^x + 1}2}$ to a real and imaginary part will be a lot messier.
          $endgroup$
          – Trevor Gunn
          Jan 13 at 5:29




          $begingroup$
          @Mario Possibly. Personally I find it easier to plot the real part and complex parts separately just in the xy-plane. For instance $(-1)^x = e^{x log(-1)} = e^{pi x i} = cos(pi x) + i sin(pi x)$. Converting $3^{frac{(-1)^x + 1}2}$ to a real and imaginary part will be a lot messier.
          $endgroup$
          – Trevor Gunn
          Jan 13 at 5:29











          3












          $begingroup$

          This is of the same type of situation as saying that $2$ and $1 + 1$ are the same. They are different expressions for the same value.



          In your case, let $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$, for $n ge 0 text{ and } n in N$. For even values of $n$, the value is $1 + 2 = 3$ and for odd values of $n$, the value is $-1 + 3 = 1$.



          Similarly, let $hleft(nright) = 3^{frac{left(-1right)^n + 1}{2}}$. For $n$ being even here, the value of $left(-1right)^n = 1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(1 + 1 right)}{2}} = 3^1 = 3$. With odd values of $n$, $left(-1right)^n = -1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(-1 + 1right)}{2}} = 3^0 = 1$.



          As you can see, the $2$ functions always have the same value for all non-negative values of $n$. They are just different ways to express the set of results. However, I prefer $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$ as, to me at least, it's simpler to understand and use.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You've proven that both functions are equal. Can you manipulate the form of function h(n) to get function f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:13










          • $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga I'm not quite sure what you mean by "manipulate". How would you, for example, propose to "manipulate" $1 + 1$ to show it's the same as $2$?
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:17












          • $begingroup$
            What if you haven't arrived to the solution of f(n)? Would you be able to simplify g(n) enough to get you to f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga The most basic of "simplifications" are the numeric values themselves, just like $2$ is usually consider simpler than $1 + 1$. With the set of values you got, there are very many different ways to represent them, with you just using $2$. In general, don't worry about determining more than $1$ way to specify results, much less figuring out how to go directly from one to another. Instead, you would normally just try to find a relatively simple & straightforward way to represent your results & use this, with the understanding that it's not the one & only unique way to do it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:22


















          3












          $begingroup$

          This is of the same type of situation as saying that $2$ and $1 + 1$ are the same. They are different expressions for the same value.



          In your case, let $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$, for $n ge 0 text{ and } n in N$. For even values of $n$, the value is $1 + 2 = 3$ and for odd values of $n$, the value is $-1 + 3 = 1$.



          Similarly, let $hleft(nright) = 3^{frac{left(-1right)^n + 1}{2}}$. For $n$ being even here, the value of $left(-1right)^n = 1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(1 + 1 right)}{2}} = 3^1 = 3$. With odd values of $n$, $left(-1right)^n = -1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(-1 + 1right)}{2}} = 3^0 = 1$.



          As you can see, the $2$ functions always have the same value for all non-negative values of $n$. They are just different ways to express the set of results. However, I prefer $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$ as, to me at least, it's simpler to understand and use.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You've proven that both functions are equal. Can you manipulate the form of function h(n) to get function f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:13










          • $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga I'm not quite sure what you mean by "manipulate". How would you, for example, propose to "manipulate" $1 + 1$ to show it's the same as $2$?
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:17












          • $begingroup$
            What if you haven't arrived to the solution of f(n)? Would you be able to simplify g(n) enough to get you to f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga The most basic of "simplifications" are the numeric values themselves, just like $2$ is usually consider simpler than $1 + 1$. With the set of values you got, there are very many different ways to represent them, with you just using $2$. In general, don't worry about determining more than $1$ way to specify results, much less figuring out how to go directly from one to another. Instead, you would normally just try to find a relatively simple & straightforward way to represent your results & use this, with the understanding that it's not the one & only unique way to do it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:22
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          This is of the same type of situation as saying that $2$ and $1 + 1$ are the same. They are different expressions for the same value.



          In your case, let $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$, for $n ge 0 text{ and } n in N$. For even values of $n$, the value is $1 + 2 = 3$ and for odd values of $n$, the value is $-1 + 3 = 1$.



          Similarly, let $hleft(nright) = 3^{frac{left(-1right)^n + 1}{2}}$. For $n$ being even here, the value of $left(-1right)^n = 1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(1 + 1 right)}{2}} = 3^1 = 3$. With odd values of $n$, $left(-1right)^n = -1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(-1 + 1right)}{2}} = 3^0 = 1$.



          As you can see, the $2$ functions always have the same value for all non-negative values of $n$. They are just different ways to express the set of results. However, I prefer $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$ as, to me at least, it's simpler to understand and use.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          This is of the same type of situation as saying that $2$ and $1 + 1$ are the same. They are different expressions for the same value.



          In your case, let $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$, for $n ge 0 text{ and } n in N$. For even values of $n$, the value is $1 + 2 = 3$ and for odd values of $n$, the value is $-1 + 3 = 1$.



          Similarly, let $hleft(nright) = 3^{frac{left(-1right)^n + 1}{2}}$. For $n$ being even here, the value of $left(-1right)^n = 1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(1 + 1 right)}{2}} = 3^1 = 3$. With odd values of $n$, $left(-1right)^n = -1$, so the function becomes $3^{frac{left(-1 + 1right)}{2}} = 3^0 = 1$.



          As you can see, the $2$ functions always have the same value for all non-negative values of $n$. They are just different ways to express the set of results. However, I prefer $fleft(nright) = left(-1right)^n + 2$ as, to me at least, it's simpler to understand and use.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 13 at 4:09









          John OmielanJohn Omielan

          1,776210




          1,776210












          • $begingroup$
            You've proven that both functions are equal. Can you manipulate the form of function h(n) to get function f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:13










          • $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga I'm not quite sure what you mean by "manipulate". How would you, for example, propose to "manipulate" $1 + 1$ to show it's the same as $2$?
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:17












          • $begingroup$
            What if you haven't arrived to the solution of f(n)? Would you be able to simplify g(n) enough to get you to f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga The most basic of "simplifications" are the numeric values themselves, just like $2$ is usually consider simpler than $1 + 1$. With the set of values you got, there are very many different ways to represent them, with you just using $2$. In general, don't worry about determining more than $1$ way to specify results, much less figuring out how to go directly from one to another. Instead, you would normally just try to find a relatively simple & straightforward way to represent your results & use this, with the understanding that it's not the one & only unique way to do it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:22




















          • $begingroup$
            You've proven that both functions are equal. Can you manipulate the form of function h(n) to get function f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:13










          • $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga I'm not quite sure what you mean by "manipulate". How would you, for example, propose to "manipulate" $1 + 1$ to show it's the same as $2$?
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:17












          • $begingroup$
            What if you haven't arrived to the solution of f(n)? Would you be able to simplify g(n) enough to get you to f(n)?
            $endgroup$
            – Mario Drouga
            Jan 13 at 4:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @MarioDrouga The most basic of "simplifications" are the numeric values themselves, just like $2$ is usually consider simpler than $1 + 1$. With the set of values you got, there are very many different ways to represent them, with you just using $2$. In general, don't worry about determining more than $1$ way to specify results, much less figuring out how to go directly from one to another. Instead, you would normally just try to find a relatively simple & straightforward way to represent your results & use this, with the understanding that it's not the one & only unique way to do it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Omielan
            Jan 13 at 4:22


















          $begingroup$
          You've proven that both functions are equal. Can you manipulate the form of function h(n) to get function f(n)?
          $endgroup$
          – Mario Drouga
          Jan 13 at 4:13




          $begingroup$
          You've proven that both functions are equal. Can you manipulate the form of function h(n) to get function f(n)?
          $endgroup$
          – Mario Drouga
          Jan 13 at 4:13












          $begingroup$
          @MarioDrouga I'm not quite sure what you mean by "manipulate". How would you, for example, propose to "manipulate" $1 + 1$ to show it's the same as $2$?
          $endgroup$
          – John Omielan
          Jan 13 at 4:17






          $begingroup$
          @MarioDrouga I'm not quite sure what you mean by "manipulate". How would you, for example, propose to "manipulate" $1 + 1$ to show it's the same as $2$?
          $endgroup$
          – John Omielan
          Jan 13 at 4:17














          $begingroup$
          What if you haven't arrived to the solution of f(n)? Would you be able to simplify g(n) enough to get you to f(n)?
          $endgroup$
          – Mario Drouga
          Jan 13 at 4:19




          $begingroup$
          What if you haven't arrived to the solution of f(n)? Would you be able to simplify g(n) enough to get you to f(n)?
          $endgroup$
          – Mario Drouga
          Jan 13 at 4:19




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @MarioDrouga The most basic of "simplifications" are the numeric values themselves, just like $2$ is usually consider simpler than $1 + 1$. With the set of values you got, there are very many different ways to represent them, with you just using $2$. In general, don't worry about determining more than $1$ way to specify results, much less figuring out how to go directly from one to another. Instead, you would normally just try to find a relatively simple & straightforward way to represent your results & use this, with the understanding that it's not the one & only unique way to do it.
          $endgroup$
          – John Omielan
          Jan 13 at 4:22






          $begingroup$
          @MarioDrouga The most basic of "simplifications" are the numeric values themselves, just like $2$ is usually consider simpler than $1 + 1$. With the set of values you got, there are very many different ways to represent them, with you just using $2$. In general, don't worry about determining more than $1$ way to specify results, much less figuring out how to go directly from one to another. Instead, you would normally just try to find a relatively simple & straightforward way to represent your results & use this, with the understanding that it's not the one & only unique way to do it.
          $endgroup$
          – John Omielan
          Jan 13 at 4:22




















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