How is this a property of Pascal's triangle?
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For all non-negative integers $k$ and $n$,
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n}{k} = dbinom{n +1}{k+1}
$$
How is this a property of Pascal's triangle? I do not see at all how it relates. I'm looking for an explanation, as opposed to some calculation with algebraic manipulations.
combinatorics binomial-coefficients
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For all non-negative integers $k$ and $n$,
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n}{k} = dbinom{n +1}{k+1}
$$
How is this a property of Pascal's triangle? I do not see at all how it relates. I'm looking for an explanation, as opposed to some calculation with algebraic manipulations.
combinatorics binomial-coefficients
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What are you asking? Are you wondering why it is true, or rather (as it would seem) why it has anything to do with Pascal's triangle? The latter seems obvious, as all binomial coefficients can be found in Pascal's triangle...
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Dec 26 '12 at 7:35
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For all non-negative integers $k$ and $n$,
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n}{k} = dbinom{n +1}{k+1}
$$
How is this a property of Pascal's triangle? I do not see at all how it relates. I'm looking for an explanation, as opposed to some calculation with algebraic manipulations.
combinatorics binomial-coefficients
$endgroup$
For all non-negative integers $k$ and $n$,
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n}{k} = dbinom{n +1}{k+1}
$$
How is this a property of Pascal's triangle? I do not see at all how it relates. I'm looking for an explanation, as opposed to some calculation with algebraic manipulations.
combinatorics binomial-coefficients
combinatorics binomial-coefficients
edited Dec 26 '12 at 16:40
Mike Spivey
42.5k8142233
42.5k8142233
asked Dec 26 '12 at 0:30
AlanHAlanH
1,50412245
1,50412245
$begingroup$
What are you asking? Are you wondering why it is true, or rather (as it would seem) why it has anything to do with Pascal's triangle? The latter seems obvious, as all binomial coefficients can be found in Pascal's triangle...
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Dec 26 '12 at 7:35
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What are you asking? Are you wondering why it is true, or rather (as it would seem) why it has anything to do with Pascal's triangle? The latter seems obvious, as all binomial coefficients can be found in Pascal's triangle...
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Dec 26 '12 at 7:35
$begingroup$
What are you asking? Are you wondering why it is true, or rather (as it would seem) why it has anything to do with Pascal's triangle? The latter seems obvious, as all binomial coefficients can be found in Pascal's triangle...
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Dec 26 '12 at 7:35
$begingroup$
What are you asking? Are you wondering why it is true, or rather (as it would seem) why it has anything to do with Pascal's triangle? The latter seems obvious, as all binomial coefficients can be found in Pascal's triangle...
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Dec 26 '12 at 7:35
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
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The "usual" property of the Pascal triangle is $$dbinom{n+1}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n}k}_{text{Up left term}}$$
Now proceed along the up right branch i.e. $$dbinom{n}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k}}_{text{Up right term}}$$
Now again take the up right branch and keep proceeding to finally end with
$$dbinom{k+1}{k+1} = dbinom{k}{k}$$
Now put these together to get what you want.
EDIT
$hskip2.5in$
begin{align}
color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}} & = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k}{k}}
end{align}
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Those are very helpful graphics, is there a particularly easy way to make things like that? (A program, etc?)
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– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:22
5
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@AndrewGibson I made these pictures in $LaTeX$ using TikZ. I am a big fan of TikZ :). If you are comfortable with $LaTeX$, then TikZ is the thing to make the graphics.
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– user17762
Dec 26 '12 at 1:26
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Fantastic, thanks!
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– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:28
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wow [filler...]
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– Belgi
Dec 26 '12 at 21:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By induction on $n$. If $n<k$ then the left hand side is an empty sum, and the right hand side has $0<n+1<k+1$ so $binom{n+1}{k+1}=0$. For $ngeq k$ assume the result for $n-1$, so one has
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n-1}{k} = dbinom n{k+1}.
$$
Substituting that into the equation to be proved, we need to show $binom n{k+1}+binom n{krlap{phantom+}}=binom{n+1}{k+1}$, which is a familiar identity.
There is also a direct combinatorial interpretation of the formula. If you choose a subset of $k+1$ from the $n+1$ numbers ${0,1,ldots,n}$, the last selected number $i$ satisfies $kleq ileq n$, and the remaining $k$ numbers can be chosen in $tbinom ik$ ways among ${0,ldots,i-1}$. Every subset is accounted for exactly once, so
$$sum_{i=k}^nbinom ik=binom{n+1}{k+1}.
$$
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add a comment |
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To add to Marvis answer note that the first equality in his answer is correct by this combinatorical argument:
When chossing $k+1$ elements out of $n+1$ elements we have two choises (that do not intersect): Either the last (say we number them from $1$ to $n+1) $element is chosen or not.
In the case that the last element is not chosen we have to choose all $k+1$ elements from $n$ elements (since the last one isn't picked) and in the second case we only need to choose another $k$ elements.
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add a comment |
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You're asking, for example, for the sum of all the indicated cells of Pascal's triangle
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet &
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
which is the same thing as the sum of the cells
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & circ
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
because I've added in zero. Now, what do you know about the sum of adjacent cells of Pascal's triangle?
Of course, this method is still a calculation with algebraic manipulations, just organized in picture form.
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add a comment |
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4 Answers
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
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oldest
votes
active
oldest
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$begingroup$
The "usual" property of the Pascal triangle is $$dbinom{n+1}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n}k}_{text{Up left term}}$$
Now proceed along the up right branch i.e. $$dbinom{n}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k}}_{text{Up right term}}$$
Now again take the up right branch and keep proceeding to finally end with
$$dbinom{k+1}{k+1} = dbinom{k}{k}$$
Now put these together to get what you want.
EDIT
$hskip2.5in$
begin{align}
color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}} & = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k}{k}}
end{align}
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Those are very helpful graphics, is there a particularly easy way to make things like that? (A program, etc?)
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:22
5
$begingroup$
@AndrewGibson I made these pictures in $LaTeX$ using TikZ. I am a big fan of TikZ :). If you are comfortable with $LaTeX$, then TikZ is the thing to make the graphics.
$endgroup$
– user17762
Dec 26 '12 at 1:26
$begingroup$
Fantastic, thanks!
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:28
$begingroup$
wow [filler...]
$endgroup$
– Belgi
Dec 26 '12 at 21:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The "usual" property of the Pascal triangle is $$dbinom{n+1}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n}k}_{text{Up left term}}$$
Now proceed along the up right branch i.e. $$dbinom{n}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k}}_{text{Up right term}}$$
Now again take the up right branch and keep proceeding to finally end with
$$dbinom{k+1}{k+1} = dbinom{k}{k}$$
Now put these together to get what you want.
EDIT
$hskip2.5in$
begin{align}
color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}} & = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k}{k}}
end{align}
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Those are very helpful graphics, is there a particularly easy way to make things like that? (A program, etc?)
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:22
5
$begingroup$
@AndrewGibson I made these pictures in $LaTeX$ using TikZ. I am a big fan of TikZ :). If you are comfortable with $LaTeX$, then TikZ is the thing to make the graphics.
$endgroup$
– user17762
Dec 26 '12 at 1:26
$begingroup$
Fantastic, thanks!
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:28
$begingroup$
wow [filler...]
$endgroup$
– Belgi
Dec 26 '12 at 21:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The "usual" property of the Pascal triangle is $$dbinom{n+1}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n}k}_{text{Up left term}}$$
Now proceed along the up right branch i.e. $$dbinom{n}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k}}_{text{Up right term}}$$
Now again take the up right branch and keep proceeding to finally end with
$$dbinom{k+1}{k+1} = dbinom{k}{k}$$
Now put these together to get what you want.
EDIT
$hskip2.5in$
begin{align}
color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}} & = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k}{k}}
end{align}
$endgroup$
The "usual" property of the Pascal triangle is $$dbinom{n+1}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n}k}_{text{Up left term}}$$
Now proceed along the up right branch i.e. $$dbinom{n}{k+1} = underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}_{text{Up right term}} + underbrace{dbinom{n-1}{k}}_{text{Up right term}}$$
Now again take the up right branch and keep proceeding to finally end with
$$dbinom{k+1}{k+1} = dbinom{k}{k}$$
Now put these together to get what you want.
EDIT
$hskip2.5in$
begin{align}
color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}} & = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{n-2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+2}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{red}{dbinom{k+1}{k+1}}\
& = color{blue}{dbinom{n}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{n-2}{k}} + cdots color{blue}{dbinom{k+2}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k+1}{k}} + color{blue}{dbinom{k}{k}}
end{align}
edited Dec 26 '12 at 1:21
answered Dec 26 '12 at 0:36
user17762
$begingroup$
Those are very helpful graphics, is there a particularly easy way to make things like that? (A program, etc?)
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:22
5
$begingroup$
@AndrewGibson I made these pictures in $LaTeX$ using TikZ. I am a big fan of TikZ :). If you are comfortable with $LaTeX$, then TikZ is the thing to make the graphics.
$endgroup$
– user17762
Dec 26 '12 at 1:26
$begingroup$
Fantastic, thanks!
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:28
$begingroup$
wow [filler...]
$endgroup$
– Belgi
Dec 26 '12 at 21:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Those are very helpful graphics, is there a particularly easy way to make things like that? (A program, etc?)
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:22
5
$begingroup$
@AndrewGibson I made these pictures in $LaTeX$ using TikZ. I am a big fan of TikZ :). If you are comfortable with $LaTeX$, then TikZ is the thing to make the graphics.
$endgroup$
– user17762
Dec 26 '12 at 1:26
$begingroup$
Fantastic, thanks!
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:28
$begingroup$
wow [filler...]
$endgroup$
– Belgi
Dec 26 '12 at 21:07
$begingroup$
Those are very helpful graphics, is there a particularly easy way to make things like that? (A program, etc?)
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:22
$begingroup$
Those are very helpful graphics, is there a particularly easy way to make things like that? (A program, etc?)
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:22
5
5
$begingroup$
@AndrewGibson I made these pictures in $LaTeX$ using TikZ. I am a big fan of TikZ :). If you are comfortable with $LaTeX$, then TikZ is the thing to make the graphics.
$endgroup$
– user17762
Dec 26 '12 at 1:26
$begingroup$
@AndrewGibson I made these pictures in $LaTeX$ using TikZ. I am a big fan of TikZ :). If you are comfortable with $LaTeX$, then TikZ is the thing to make the graphics.
$endgroup$
– user17762
Dec 26 '12 at 1:26
$begingroup$
Fantastic, thanks!
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:28
$begingroup$
Fantastic, thanks!
$endgroup$
– AndrewG
Dec 26 '12 at 1:28
$begingroup$
wow [filler...]
$endgroup$
– Belgi
Dec 26 '12 at 21:07
$begingroup$
wow [filler...]
$endgroup$
– Belgi
Dec 26 '12 at 21:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By induction on $n$. If $n<k$ then the left hand side is an empty sum, and the right hand side has $0<n+1<k+1$ so $binom{n+1}{k+1}=0$. For $ngeq k$ assume the result for $n-1$, so one has
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n-1}{k} = dbinom n{k+1}.
$$
Substituting that into the equation to be proved, we need to show $binom n{k+1}+binom n{krlap{phantom+}}=binom{n+1}{k+1}$, which is a familiar identity.
There is also a direct combinatorial interpretation of the formula. If you choose a subset of $k+1$ from the $n+1$ numbers ${0,1,ldots,n}$, the last selected number $i$ satisfies $kleq ileq n$, and the remaining $k$ numbers can be chosen in $tbinom ik$ ways among ${0,ldots,i-1}$. Every subset is accounted for exactly once, so
$$sum_{i=k}^nbinom ik=binom{n+1}{k+1}.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By induction on $n$. If $n<k$ then the left hand side is an empty sum, and the right hand side has $0<n+1<k+1$ so $binom{n+1}{k+1}=0$. For $ngeq k$ assume the result for $n-1$, so one has
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n-1}{k} = dbinom n{k+1}.
$$
Substituting that into the equation to be proved, we need to show $binom n{k+1}+binom n{krlap{phantom+}}=binom{n+1}{k+1}$, which is a familiar identity.
There is also a direct combinatorial interpretation of the formula. If you choose a subset of $k+1$ from the $n+1$ numbers ${0,1,ldots,n}$, the last selected number $i$ satisfies $kleq ileq n$, and the remaining $k$ numbers can be chosen in $tbinom ik$ ways among ${0,ldots,i-1}$. Every subset is accounted for exactly once, so
$$sum_{i=k}^nbinom ik=binom{n+1}{k+1}.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By induction on $n$. If $n<k$ then the left hand side is an empty sum, and the right hand side has $0<n+1<k+1$ so $binom{n+1}{k+1}=0$. For $ngeq k$ assume the result for $n-1$, so one has
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n-1}{k} = dbinom n{k+1}.
$$
Substituting that into the equation to be proved, we need to show $binom n{k+1}+binom n{krlap{phantom+}}=binom{n+1}{k+1}$, which is a familiar identity.
There is also a direct combinatorial interpretation of the formula. If you choose a subset of $k+1$ from the $n+1$ numbers ${0,1,ldots,n}$, the last selected number $i$ satisfies $kleq ileq n$, and the remaining $k$ numbers can be chosen in $tbinom ik$ ways among ${0,ldots,i-1}$. Every subset is accounted for exactly once, so
$$sum_{i=k}^nbinom ik=binom{n+1}{k+1}.
$$
$endgroup$
By induction on $n$. If $n<k$ then the left hand side is an empty sum, and the right hand side has $0<n+1<k+1$ so $binom{n+1}{k+1}=0$. For $ngeq k$ assume the result for $n-1$, so one has
$$
dbinom{k}{k} + dbinom{k+1}{k} + dbinom{k+2}{k} + ldots + dbinom{n-1}{k} = dbinom n{k+1}.
$$
Substituting that into the equation to be proved, we need to show $binom n{k+1}+binom n{krlap{phantom+}}=binom{n+1}{k+1}$, which is a familiar identity.
There is also a direct combinatorial interpretation of the formula. If you choose a subset of $k+1$ from the $n+1$ numbers ${0,1,ldots,n}$, the last selected number $i$ satisfies $kleq ileq n$, and the remaining $k$ numbers can be chosen in $tbinom ik$ ways among ${0,ldots,i-1}$. Every subset is accounted for exactly once, so
$$sum_{i=k}^nbinom ik=binom{n+1}{k+1}.
$$
edited Jan 16 at 12:53
answered Dec 26 '12 at 9:57
Marc van LeeuwenMarc van Leeuwen
87.1k5107223
87.1k5107223
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To add to Marvis answer note that the first equality in his answer is correct by this combinatorical argument:
When chossing $k+1$ elements out of $n+1$ elements we have two choises (that do not intersect): Either the last (say we number them from $1$ to $n+1) $element is chosen or not.
In the case that the last element is not chosen we have to choose all $k+1$ elements from $n$ elements (since the last one isn't picked) and in the second case we only need to choose another $k$ elements.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To add to Marvis answer note that the first equality in his answer is correct by this combinatorical argument:
When chossing $k+1$ elements out of $n+1$ elements we have two choises (that do not intersect): Either the last (say we number them from $1$ to $n+1) $element is chosen or not.
In the case that the last element is not chosen we have to choose all $k+1$ elements from $n$ elements (since the last one isn't picked) and in the second case we only need to choose another $k$ elements.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To add to Marvis answer note that the first equality in his answer is correct by this combinatorical argument:
When chossing $k+1$ elements out of $n+1$ elements we have two choises (that do not intersect): Either the last (say we number them from $1$ to $n+1) $element is chosen or not.
In the case that the last element is not chosen we have to choose all $k+1$ elements from $n$ elements (since the last one isn't picked) and in the second case we only need to choose another $k$ elements.
$endgroup$
To add to Marvis answer note that the first equality in his answer is correct by this combinatorical argument:
When chossing $k+1$ elements out of $n+1$ elements we have two choises (that do not intersect): Either the last (say we number them from $1$ to $n+1) $element is chosen or not.
In the case that the last element is not chosen we have to choose all $k+1$ elements from $n$ elements (since the last one isn't picked) and in the second case we only need to choose another $k$ elements.
answered Dec 26 '12 at 0:40
BelgiBelgi
14.6k1054115
14.6k1054115
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're asking, for example, for the sum of all the indicated cells of Pascal's triangle
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet &
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
which is the same thing as the sum of the cells
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & circ
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
because I've added in zero. Now, what do you know about the sum of adjacent cells of Pascal's triangle?
Of course, this method is still a calculation with algebraic manipulations, just organized in picture form.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're asking, for example, for the sum of all the indicated cells of Pascal's triangle
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet &
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
which is the same thing as the sum of the cells
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & circ
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
because I've added in zero. Now, what do you know about the sum of adjacent cells of Pascal's triangle?
Of course, this method is still a calculation with algebraic manipulations, just organized in picture form.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're asking, for example, for the sum of all the indicated cells of Pascal's triangle
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet &
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
which is the same thing as the sum of the cells
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & circ
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
because I've added in zero. Now, what do you know about the sum of adjacent cells of Pascal's triangle?
Of course, this method is still a calculation with algebraic manipulations, just organized in picture form.
$endgroup$
You're asking, for example, for the sum of all the indicated cells of Pascal's triangle
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet &
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
which is the same thing as the sum of the cells
$$ begin{matrix} cdot
\ cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & circ
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & bullet & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
\ cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot & cdot
end{matrix} $$
because I've added in zero. Now, what do you know about the sum of adjacent cells of Pascal's triangle?
Of course, this method is still a calculation with algebraic manipulations, just organized in picture form.
answered Dec 26 '12 at 1:25
HurkylHurkyl
111k9119262
111k9119262
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
What are you asking? Are you wondering why it is true, or rather (as it would seem) why it has anything to do with Pascal's triangle? The latter seems obvious, as all binomial coefficients can be found in Pascal's triangle...
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Dec 26 '12 at 7:35