Explain the Circular Error Probable formula mentioned in this article












0














Metin Bektas in this blog post writes about how we could calculate the probability (p) of hitting a target by a missile with a given accuracy (measured as CEP) as below:



p = 1 – exp( -0.41 · R² / CEP² )


Definition of CEP (Circular Error Probable) taken from the blog post:



An important quantity when comparing missiles is the CEP (Circular Error Probable). It is defined as the radius of the circle in which 50 % of the fired missiles land.



How was the formula for p derived?










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  • Using 2D (isotropic) gaussian distributions.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 5:49












  • @Did could you please elaborate. What is the constant -0.41?
    – ardsrk
    Sep 13 '16 at 14:34










  • This is odd, the formula in the blog post gives 33% chances to hit the disk of radius CEP. To get 50% chances, one should use $p=1-exp(-0.69cdot R^2/text{CEP}^2)$ instead. Typo?
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:03










  • The value $0.69$ ($=ln2$) is confirmed by the French WP page.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:06


















0














Metin Bektas in this blog post writes about how we could calculate the probability (p) of hitting a target by a missile with a given accuracy (measured as CEP) as below:



p = 1 – exp( -0.41 · R² / CEP² )


Definition of CEP (Circular Error Probable) taken from the blog post:



An important quantity when comparing missiles is the CEP (Circular Error Probable). It is defined as the radius of the circle in which 50 % of the fired missiles land.



How was the formula for p derived?










share|cite|improve this question














bumped to the homepage by Community yesterday


This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.















  • Using 2D (isotropic) gaussian distributions.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 5:49












  • @Did could you please elaborate. What is the constant -0.41?
    – ardsrk
    Sep 13 '16 at 14:34










  • This is odd, the formula in the blog post gives 33% chances to hit the disk of radius CEP. To get 50% chances, one should use $p=1-exp(-0.69cdot R^2/text{CEP}^2)$ instead. Typo?
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:03










  • The value $0.69$ ($=ln2$) is confirmed by the French WP page.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:06
















0












0








0







Metin Bektas in this blog post writes about how we could calculate the probability (p) of hitting a target by a missile with a given accuracy (measured as CEP) as below:



p = 1 – exp( -0.41 · R² / CEP² )


Definition of CEP (Circular Error Probable) taken from the blog post:



An important quantity when comparing missiles is the CEP (Circular Error Probable). It is defined as the radius of the circle in which 50 % of the fired missiles land.



How was the formula for p derived?










share|cite|improve this question













Metin Bektas in this blog post writes about how we could calculate the probability (p) of hitting a target by a missile with a given accuracy (measured as CEP) as below:



p = 1 – exp( -0.41 · R² / CEP² )


Definition of CEP (Circular Error Probable) taken from the blog post:



An important quantity when comparing missiles is the CEP (Circular Error Probable). It is defined as the radius of the circle in which 50 % of the fired missiles land.



How was the formula for p derived?







probability statistics






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Sep 13 '16 at 5:36









ardsrk

1013




1013





bumped to the homepage by Community yesterday


This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.







bumped to the homepage by Community yesterday


This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.














  • Using 2D (isotropic) gaussian distributions.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 5:49












  • @Did could you please elaborate. What is the constant -0.41?
    – ardsrk
    Sep 13 '16 at 14:34










  • This is odd, the formula in the blog post gives 33% chances to hit the disk of radius CEP. To get 50% chances, one should use $p=1-exp(-0.69cdot R^2/text{CEP}^2)$ instead. Typo?
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:03










  • The value $0.69$ ($=ln2$) is confirmed by the French WP page.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:06




















  • Using 2D (isotropic) gaussian distributions.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 5:49












  • @Did could you please elaborate. What is the constant -0.41?
    – ardsrk
    Sep 13 '16 at 14:34










  • This is odd, the formula in the blog post gives 33% chances to hit the disk of radius CEP. To get 50% chances, one should use $p=1-exp(-0.69cdot R^2/text{CEP}^2)$ instead. Typo?
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:03










  • The value $0.69$ ($=ln2$) is confirmed by the French WP page.
    – Did
    Sep 13 '16 at 16:06


















Using 2D (isotropic) gaussian distributions.
– Did
Sep 13 '16 at 5:49






Using 2D (isotropic) gaussian distributions.
– Did
Sep 13 '16 at 5:49














@Did could you please elaborate. What is the constant -0.41?
– ardsrk
Sep 13 '16 at 14:34




@Did could you please elaborate. What is the constant -0.41?
– ardsrk
Sep 13 '16 at 14:34












This is odd, the formula in the blog post gives 33% chances to hit the disk of radius CEP. To get 50% chances, one should use $p=1-exp(-0.69cdot R^2/text{CEP}^2)$ instead. Typo?
– Did
Sep 13 '16 at 16:03




This is odd, the formula in the blog post gives 33% chances to hit the disk of radius CEP. To get 50% chances, one should use $p=1-exp(-0.69cdot R^2/text{CEP}^2)$ instead. Typo?
– Did
Sep 13 '16 at 16:03












The value $0.69$ ($=ln2$) is confirmed by the French WP page.
– Did
Sep 13 '16 at 16:06






The value $0.69$ ($=ln2$) is confirmed by the French WP page.
– Did
Sep 13 '16 at 16:06












1 Answer
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The formula is a variation on the cumulative density function (CDF) of the Rayleigh probability distribution as found here:



$$F(x,sigma) = 1 - exp(-frac{x^2}{2sigma^2})$$



where $sigma$ is the mode of the distribution. To represent the formula in terms of the radius corresponding to a 50% probability, or $CEP^2$, you would need to use the formula as given by user "Did" above. I agree that the referenced blog post is incorrect.






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    0














    The formula is a variation on the cumulative density function (CDF) of the Rayleigh probability distribution as found here:



    $$F(x,sigma) = 1 - exp(-frac{x^2}{2sigma^2})$$



    where $sigma$ is the mode of the distribution. To represent the formula in terms of the radius corresponding to a 50% probability, or $CEP^2$, you would need to use the formula as given by user "Did" above. I agree that the referenced blog post is incorrect.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      0














      The formula is a variation on the cumulative density function (CDF) of the Rayleigh probability distribution as found here:



      $$F(x,sigma) = 1 - exp(-frac{x^2}{2sigma^2})$$



      where $sigma$ is the mode of the distribution. To represent the formula in terms of the radius corresponding to a 50% probability, or $CEP^2$, you would need to use the formula as given by user "Did" above. I agree that the referenced blog post is incorrect.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        0












        0








        0






        The formula is a variation on the cumulative density function (CDF) of the Rayleigh probability distribution as found here:



        $$F(x,sigma) = 1 - exp(-frac{x^2}{2sigma^2})$$



        where $sigma$ is the mode of the distribution. To represent the formula in terms of the radius corresponding to a 50% probability, or $CEP^2$, you would need to use the formula as given by user "Did" above. I agree that the referenced blog post is incorrect.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The formula is a variation on the cumulative density function (CDF) of the Rayleigh probability distribution as found here:



        $$F(x,sigma) = 1 - exp(-frac{x^2}{2sigma^2})$$



        where $sigma$ is the mode of the distribution. To represent the formula in terms of the radius corresponding to a 50% probability, or $CEP^2$, you would need to use the formula as given by user "Did" above. I agree that the referenced blog post is incorrect.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 5 '17 at 20:36









        user404485

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