Why are polynomials tangential to the $x$ axis at real double roots?












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If $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial, then the graph will be tangent to the $x$ axis at $x=a$ but why? I know this is always the case for real double roots however I do not know the explanation for this behavior. Does this behavior apply to all real polynomial roots with even index multiplicities?










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    3












    $begingroup$


    If $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial, then the graph will be tangent to the $x$ axis at $x=a$ but why? I know this is always the case for real double roots however I do not know the explanation for this behavior. Does this behavior apply to all real polynomial roots with even index multiplicities?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      If $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial, then the graph will be tangent to the $x$ axis at $x=a$ but why? I know this is always the case for real double roots however I do not know the explanation for this behavior. Does this behavior apply to all real polynomial roots with even index multiplicities?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      If $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial, then the graph will be tangent to the $x$ axis at $x=a$ but why? I know this is always the case for real double roots however I do not know the explanation for this behavior. Does this behavior apply to all real polynomial roots with even index multiplicities?







      real-analysis calculus polynomials roots






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      asked Jan 16 at 16:46









      GnumbertesterGnumbertester

      558112




      558112






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          First a comment



          Saying that $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial $p(x)$ is an improper wording. You should say that $(x-a)^2$ divides $p(x)$ or that $a$ is a root of $p(x)$ of multiplicity at least equal to $2$.



          Regarding your question



          So you suppose that $p(x) = (x-a)^2q(x)$. Then taking the derivative you get



          $$p^prime(x) = 2(x-a)q(x) + (x-a)^2 q^prime(x).$$



          Therefore you have $p(a)=p^prime(a)=0$. Proving that the graph of the function $x mapsto p(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            2












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            You can prove this easily using calculus, but I'll give an even more elementary argument.



            The graph of $f(x)=(x-a)^{2}$ is an upward facing parabola. In particular, it is the graph of $f(x)=x^{2}$ shifted to the right by $a$ units (if a is positive).



            Note that, being a square, $(x-a)^{2}$ is always greater than or equal to $0$. And it is only equal to $0$ at $x=a$.



            Combining the above two observations, the graph of $f(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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            • $begingroup$
              The OP is asking about any polynomial that has $(x-a)^2$ as a factor, not just $(x-a)^2$.
              $endgroup$
              – amd
              Jan 16 at 18:24











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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

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            active

            oldest

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            3












            $begingroup$

            First a comment



            Saying that $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial $p(x)$ is an improper wording. You should say that $(x-a)^2$ divides $p(x)$ or that $a$ is a root of $p(x)$ of multiplicity at least equal to $2$.



            Regarding your question



            So you suppose that $p(x) = (x-a)^2q(x)$. Then taking the derivative you get



            $$p^prime(x) = 2(x-a)q(x) + (x-a)^2 q^prime(x).$$



            Therefore you have $p(a)=p^prime(a)=0$. Proving that the graph of the function $x mapsto p(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              First a comment



              Saying that $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial $p(x)$ is an improper wording. You should say that $(x-a)^2$ divides $p(x)$ or that $a$ is a root of $p(x)$ of multiplicity at least equal to $2$.



              Regarding your question



              So you suppose that $p(x) = (x-a)^2q(x)$. Then taking the derivative you get



              $$p^prime(x) = 2(x-a)q(x) + (x-a)^2 q^prime(x).$$



              Therefore you have $p(a)=p^prime(a)=0$. Proving that the graph of the function $x mapsto p(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                First a comment



                Saying that $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial $p(x)$ is an improper wording. You should say that $(x-a)^2$ divides $p(x)$ or that $a$ is a root of $p(x)$ of multiplicity at least equal to $2$.



                Regarding your question



                So you suppose that $p(x) = (x-a)^2q(x)$. Then taking the derivative you get



                $$p^prime(x) = 2(x-a)q(x) + (x-a)^2 q^prime(x).$$



                Therefore you have $p(a)=p^prime(a)=0$. Proving that the graph of the function $x mapsto p(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                First a comment



                Saying that $(x-a)^2$ is a root of a polynomial $p(x)$ is an improper wording. You should say that $(x-a)^2$ divides $p(x)$ or that $a$ is a root of $p(x)$ of multiplicity at least equal to $2$.



                Regarding your question



                So you suppose that $p(x) = (x-a)^2q(x)$. Then taking the derivative you get



                $$p^prime(x) = 2(x-a)q(x) + (x-a)^2 q^prime(x).$$



                Therefore you have $p(a)=p^prime(a)=0$. Proving that the graph of the function $x mapsto p(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 16 at 16:55









                mathcounterexamples.netmathcounterexamples.net

                26.7k22157




                26.7k22157























                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    You can prove this easily using calculus, but I'll give an even more elementary argument.



                    The graph of $f(x)=(x-a)^{2}$ is an upward facing parabola. In particular, it is the graph of $f(x)=x^{2}$ shifted to the right by $a$ units (if a is positive).



                    Note that, being a square, $(x-a)^{2}$ is always greater than or equal to $0$. And it is only equal to $0$ at $x=a$.



                    Combining the above two observations, the graph of $f(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      The OP is asking about any polynomial that has $(x-a)^2$ as a factor, not just $(x-a)^2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – amd
                      Jan 16 at 18:24
















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    You can prove this easily using calculus, but I'll give an even more elementary argument.



                    The graph of $f(x)=(x-a)^{2}$ is an upward facing parabola. In particular, it is the graph of $f(x)=x^{2}$ shifted to the right by $a$ units (if a is positive).



                    Note that, being a square, $(x-a)^{2}$ is always greater than or equal to $0$. And it is only equal to $0$ at $x=a$.



                    Combining the above two observations, the graph of $f(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      The OP is asking about any polynomial that has $(x-a)^2$ as a factor, not just $(x-a)^2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – amd
                      Jan 16 at 18:24














                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    You can prove this easily using calculus, but I'll give an even more elementary argument.



                    The graph of $f(x)=(x-a)^{2}$ is an upward facing parabola. In particular, it is the graph of $f(x)=x^{2}$ shifted to the right by $a$ units (if a is positive).



                    Note that, being a square, $(x-a)^{2}$ is always greater than or equal to $0$. And it is only equal to $0$ at $x=a$.



                    Combining the above two observations, the graph of $f(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    You can prove this easily using calculus, but I'll give an even more elementary argument.



                    The graph of $f(x)=(x-a)^{2}$ is an upward facing parabola. In particular, it is the graph of $f(x)=x^{2}$ shifted to the right by $a$ units (if a is positive).



                    Note that, being a square, $(x-a)^{2}$ is always greater than or equal to $0$. And it is only equal to $0$ at $x=a$.



                    Combining the above two observations, the graph of $f(x)$ is tangent to the $x$-axis at $x=a$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 16 at 16:50









                    pwerthpwerth

                    3,113417




                    3,113417












                    • $begingroup$
                      The OP is asking about any polynomial that has $(x-a)^2$ as a factor, not just $(x-a)^2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – amd
                      Jan 16 at 18:24


















                    • $begingroup$
                      The OP is asking about any polynomial that has $(x-a)^2$ as a factor, not just $(x-a)^2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – amd
                      Jan 16 at 18:24
















                    $begingroup$
                    The OP is asking about any polynomial that has $(x-a)^2$ as a factor, not just $(x-a)^2$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – amd
                    Jan 16 at 18:24




                    $begingroup$
                    The OP is asking about any polynomial that has $(x-a)^2$ as a factor, not just $(x-a)^2$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – amd
                    Jan 16 at 18:24


















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