Limit of $s_n = intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} dx$ as $n to infty$
$begingroup$
Let $s_n$ be a sequence defined as given below for $n geq 1$. Then find out $limlimits_{n to
infty} s_n$.
begin{align}
s_n = intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} dx
end{align}
I have written a solution of my own, but I would like to know it is completely correct, and also I would like if people post more alternative solutions.
sequences-and-series integration limits
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|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Let $s_n$ be a sequence defined as given below for $n geq 1$. Then find out $limlimits_{n to
infty} s_n$.
begin{align}
s_n = intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} dx
end{align}
I have written a solution of my own, but I would like to know it is completely correct, and also I would like if people post more alternative solutions.
sequences-and-series integration limits
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Is the downvote because of self-answering?
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:08
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Probably. Why did you post a question to which you already knew the answer?
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– Todd Wilcox
Feb 1 '13 at 18:09
2
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A few reasons 1. It gives me oppurtunity to verify that the solution is indeed correct. (I self study, so even though I get an answer and I am pretty sure about it, there is no real way to verify the solution completely.) 2. It allows probably other people to offer me better solutions. 3. I can do so on a blog, but then it might not get the same attention on the blog. 4. MSE's editing capabilities are better than almost all other blogging software I have found.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:10
1
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote either, but it seems stylistically and logically wrong: the question is "is the following I reproduce in the question text correct?", the answer "yes/no" with reason. I jabs answered my own questions, when I didn't get answers or, after my thought, believed I could improve on other posting; answering your own questions isn't wrong per se. It's also simply more convenient to have the actual question on top.
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– gnometorule
Feb 1 '13 at 18:42
2
$begingroup$
+1: I see no problem posting a question for which you already know the answer and asking for alternative approaches.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:02
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Let $s_n$ be a sequence defined as given below for $n geq 1$. Then find out $limlimits_{n to
infty} s_n$.
begin{align}
s_n = intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} dx
end{align}
I have written a solution of my own, but I would like to know it is completely correct, and also I would like if people post more alternative solutions.
sequences-and-series integration limits
$endgroup$
Let $s_n$ be a sequence defined as given below for $n geq 1$. Then find out $limlimits_{n to
infty} s_n$.
begin{align}
s_n = intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} dx
end{align}
I have written a solution of my own, but I would like to know it is completely correct, and also I would like if people post more alternative solutions.
sequences-and-series integration limits
sequences-and-series integration limits
edited Feb 1 '13 at 18:34
asked Feb 1 '13 at 18:06
user14082
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Is the downvote because of self-answering?
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:08
$begingroup$
Probably. Why did you post a question to which you already knew the answer?
$endgroup$
– Todd Wilcox
Feb 1 '13 at 18:09
2
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A few reasons 1. It gives me oppurtunity to verify that the solution is indeed correct. (I self study, so even though I get an answer and I am pretty sure about it, there is no real way to verify the solution completely.) 2. It allows probably other people to offer me better solutions. 3. I can do so on a blog, but then it might not get the same attention on the blog. 4. MSE's editing capabilities are better than almost all other blogging software I have found.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:10
1
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I didn't downvote either, but it seems stylistically and logically wrong: the question is "is the following I reproduce in the question text correct?", the answer "yes/no" with reason. I jabs answered my own questions, when I didn't get answers or, after my thought, believed I could improve on other posting; answering your own questions isn't wrong per se. It's also simply more convenient to have the actual question on top.
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– gnometorule
Feb 1 '13 at 18:42
2
$begingroup$
+1: I see no problem posting a question for which you already know the answer and asking for alternative approaches.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:02
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Is the downvote because of self-answering?
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:08
$begingroup$
Probably. Why did you post a question to which you already knew the answer?
$endgroup$
– Todd Wilcox
Feb 1 '13 at 18:09
2
$begingroup$
A few reasons 1. It gives me oppurtunity to verify that the solution is indeed correct. (I self study, so even though I get an answer and I am pretty sure about it, there is no real way to verify the solution completely.) 2. It allows probably other people to offer me better solutions. 3. I can do so on a blog, but then it might not get the same attention on the blog. 4. MSE's editing capabilities are better than almost all other blogging software I have found.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:10
1
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote either, but it seems stylistically and logically wrong: the question is "is the following I reproduce in the question text correct?", the answer "yes/no" with reason. I jabs answered my own questions, when I didn't get answers or, after my thought, believed I could improve on other posting; answering your own questions isn't wrong per se. It's also simply more convenient to have the actual question on top.
$endgroup$
– gnometorule
Feb 1 '13 at 18:42
2
$begingroup$
+1: I see no problem posting a question for which you already know the answer and asking for alternative approaches.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:02
$begingroup$
Is the downvote because of self-answering?
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:08
$begingroup$
Is the downvote because of self-answering?
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:08
$begingroup$
Probably. Why did you post a question to which you already knew the answer?
$endgroup$
– Todd Wilcox
Feb 1 '13 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Probably. Why did you post a question to which you already knew the answer?
$endgroup$
– Todd Wilcox
Feb 1 '13 at 18:09
2
2
$begingroup$
A few reasons 1. It gives me oppurtunity to verify that the solution is indeed correct. (I self study, so even though I get an answer and I am pretty sure about it, there is no real way to verify the solution completely.) 2. It allows probably other people to offer me better solutions. 3. I can do so on a blog, but then it might not get the same attention on the blog. 4. MSE's editing capabilities are better than almost all other blogging software I have found.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:10
$begingroup$
A few reasons 1. It gives me oppurtunity to verify that the solution is indeed correct. (I self study, so even though I get an answer and I am pretty sure about it, there is no real way to verify the solution completely.) 2. It allows probably other people to offer me better solutions. 3. I can do so on a blog, but then it might not get the same attention on the blog. 4. MSE's editing capabilities are better than almost all other blogging software I have found.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:10
1
1
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote either, but it seems stylistically and logically wrong: the question is "is the following I reproduce in the question text correct?", the answer "yes/no" with reason. I jabs answered my own questions, when I didn't get answers or, after my thought, believed I could improve on other posting; answering your own questions isn't wrong per se. It's also simply more convenient to have the actual question on top.
$endgroup$
– gnometorule
Feb 1 '13 at 18:42
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote either, but it seems stylistically and logically wrong: the question is "is the following I reproduce in the question text correct?", the answer "yes/no" with reason. I jabs answered my own questions, when I didn't get answers or, after my thought, believed I could improve on other posting; answering your own questions isn't wrong per se. It's also simply more convenient to have the actual question on top.
$endgroup$
– gnometorule
Feb 1 '13 at 18:42
2
2
$begingroup$
+1: I see no problem posting a question for which you already know the answer and asking for alternative approaches.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:02
$begingroup$
+1: I see no problem posting a question for which you already know the answer and asking for alternative approaches.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:02
|
show 8 more comments
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
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We simplify the formulate for $s_n$ by integrating by parts.
begin{align}
s_n &= intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} d x \
&= left[
frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d x
- int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} d xright) d x
right]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d xright]^1_0
- left[int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} dxright) d xright]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{x^n}{1+x}right]^1_0
- left[int frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d xright]^1_0 \
&= frac{1}{2} - intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d x \
end{align}
Now we estimate the remaining integral in the expression
begin{align}
I(n) &= intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+x right)^2} d x \
&leq intlimits_0^1 x^n d x \
&= frac{1}{n+1}
end{align}
Hence, $I(n) to 0$ as $n to infty$.
And so, the expression can be rewritten as
begin{align}
limlimits_{n to infty} s_n = frac{1}{2}
end{align}
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What do you mean by $I(n) = e^{log(x)n}$ in the last line?
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– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:15
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Added the explanation. I hope its correct.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:23
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It is not; you can't just pull a $log x$ out of the integral since you're integrating with respect to $x$.
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– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:29
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Arrrrgh. Thanks.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
4
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$I(n)leq int_0^1 x^n dx={1over n+1}.$
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– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 19:19
add a comment |
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We use a basic result in calculus, namely $lim_{nto infty}nint_0^1x^nf(x) dx=f(1)$, $f$ continuous on $[0,1]$
$$lim_{nto infty}left(frac{n}{n-1}times (n-1)intlimits_0^1 x^{n-1} frac{1}{(1+x)} dxright)=frac{1}{2}$$
Chris.
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What is the name or proof of this basic result?
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– Alex
Feb 1 '13 at 19:53
2
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@Alex: I don't know if it has a name. Our teacher told us once that the result may be easily proved with the calculus knowledge in high school. This link will help you: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168163/…
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– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:01
1
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Nice solution Chris'ssister! :-) Your question and the corresponding answers provide a decent tool. :-)
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 20:32
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@OrangeHarvester: Thanks! :-) are you Jayesh? (sister here now)
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– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:44
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Yes. I am Jayesh. Name changed for a month.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 22:15
add a comment |
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Here's a solution based on order statistics, similar to my answer here.
Let $X_1,dots, X_n$ be i.i.d. uniform(0,1) random variables.
The distribution function of $X$ is $F(x)=x$ and density $f(x)=1$ for $0leq xleq 1$.
Now let $M=max(X_1,dots, X_n)$; its density function is
$$f_M(x)=n F(x)^{n-1}f_X(x)=n,x^{n-1}text{ for }0leq xleq 1.$$
Also, it is not hard to see that $Mto 1$ in distribution as $ntoinfty$.
Now $$int_0^1 {n x^{n-1}over 1+x} ,dx =int_0^1 {1over 1+x}, f_M(x) ,dx
=mathbb{E}left({1over 1+M}right).$$
This converges to
${1over 1+1}={1over 2}$ as $ntoinfty$.
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Thanks. A different solution. :-)
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:37
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@MikeSpivey Yeah, it's the way I think. Some of the other answers here are great, too.
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– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:06
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@Byron: If I may say so, I often enjoy your answers that use probability and statistics to answer questions that appear to be outside of those fields. They are close enough to the way I think that I can appreciate them, but I often wouldn't think of those arguments myself.
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– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:09
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@MikeSpivey Thanks for the kind words. I learn a lot from your answers, too.
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– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:12
add a comment |
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Notice
(1) $frac{s_n}{n} + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1} = int_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = frac{1}{n} implies s_n + s_{n+1} = 1 + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1}$.
(2) $s_n = nint_0^1 frac{x^{n-1}}{1+x} dx < nint_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = 1$
(3) $s_{n+1} - s_n = int_0^1 frac{d (x^{n+1}-x^n)}{1+x} = int_0^1 x^n frac{1-x}{(1+x)^2} dx > 0$
(2+3) $implies s = lim_{ntoinfty} s_n$ exists and (1+2) $implies s+s = 1 + 0 implies s = frac{1}{2}$.
In any event, $s_n$ can be evaluated exactly to $n (psi(n) - psi(frac{n}{2}) - ln{2})$ where $psi(x)$ is the diagamma function. Since $psi(x) approx ln(x) - frac{1}{2x} - frac{1}{12x^2} + frac{1}{120x^4} + ... $ as $x to infty$, we know:
$$s_n approx frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4 n} - frac{1}{8 n^3} + ...$$
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add a comment |
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Using the substitution $xmapsto x^{1/n}$ and Dominated Convergence,
$$
begin{align}
lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x},mathrm{d}x
&=lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac1{1+x^{1/n}},mathrm{d}x\
&=int_0^1frac12,mathrm{d}x\
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
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Nice Robjohn . I have a doubt . When $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty} $ and $0<x<1.$. Then $(x)^n=0.$ So $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty}int^{1}_{0}frac{n x^{n-1}}{1+x}dx=0$. please explain me where i am wrong. Thanks
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– D Tiwari
Oct 2 '18 at 7:16
1
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@DurgeshTiwari: You cannot simply exchange limits and integrals. There are rules for doing so. Above, I used Dominated Convergence, which says that if $|f_n(x)|le g(x)$ for all $n$ and $xin[0,1]$ and $int_0^1g(x),mathrm{d}xltinfty$, then $$limlimits_{ntoinfty}int_0^1f_n(x),mathrm{d}x=int_0^1limlimits_{ntoinfty}f_n(x),mathrm{d}x$$ There is no such $g(x)$ that dominates $frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x}$ for all $n$.
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– robjohn♦
Oct 2 '18 at 8:34
add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
We simplify the formulate for $s_n$ by integrating by parts.
begin{align}
s_n &= intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} d x \
&= left[
frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d x
- int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} d xright) d x
right]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d xright]^1_0
- left[int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} dxright) d xright]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{x^n}{1+x}right]^1_0
- left[int frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d xright]^1_0 \
&= frac{1}{2} - intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d x \
end{align}
Now we estimate the remaining integral in the expression
begin{align}
I(n) &= intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+x right)^2} d x \
&leq intlimits_0^1 x^n d x \
&= frac{1}{n+1}
end{align}
Hence, $I(n) to 0$ as $n to infty$.
And so, the expression can be rewritten as
begin{align}
limlimits_{n to infty} s_n = frac{1}{2}
end{align}
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What do you mean by $I(n) = e^{log(x)n}$ in the last line?
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Added the explanation. I hope its correct.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:23
$begingroup$
It is not; you can't just pull a $log x$ out of the integral since you're integrating with respect to $x$.
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:29
$begingroup$
Arrrrgh. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
4
$begingroup$
$I(n)leq int_0^1 x^n dx={1over n+1}.$
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 19:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We simplify the formulate for $s_n$ by integrating by parts.
begin{align}
s_n &= intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} d x \
&= left[
frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d x
- int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} d xright) d x
right]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d xright]^1_0
- left[int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} dxright) d xright]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{x^n}{1+x}right]^1_0
- left[int frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d xright]^1_0 \
&= frac{1}{2} - intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d x \
end{align}
Now we estimate the remaining integral in the expression
begin{align}
I(n) &= intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+x right)^2} d x \
&leq intlimits_0^1 x^n d x \
&= frac{1}{n+1}
end{align}
Hence, $I(n) to 0$ as $n to infty$.
And so, the expression can be rewritten as
begin{align}
limlimits_{n to infty} s_n = frac{1}{2}
end{align}
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What do you mean by $I(n) = e^{log(x)n}$ in the last line?
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Added the explanation. I hope its correct.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:23
$begingroup$
It is not; you can't just pull a $log x$ out of the integral since you're integrating with respect to $x$.
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:29
$begingroup$
Arrrrgh. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
4
$begingroup$
$I(n)leq int_0^1 x^n dx={1over n+1}.$
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 19:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We simplify the formulate for $s_n$ by integrating by parts.
begin{align}
s_n &= intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} d x \
&= left[
frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d x
- int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} d xright) d x
right]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d xright]^1_0
- left[int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} dxright) d xright]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{x^n}{1+x}right]^1_0
- left[int frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d xright]^1_0 \
&= frac{1}{2} - intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d x \
end{align}
Now we estimate the remaining integral in the expression
begin{align}
I(n) &= intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+x right)^2} d x \
&leq intlimits_0^1 x^n d x \
&= frac{1}{n+1}
end{align}
Hence, $I(n) to 0$ as $n to infty$.
And so, the expression can be rewritten as
begin{align}
limlimits_{n to infty} s_n = frac{1}{2}
end{align}
$endgroup$
We simplify the formulate for $s_n$ by integrating by parts.
begin{align}
s_n &= intlimits_0^1 frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x} d x \
&= left[
frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d x
- int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} d xright) d x
right]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{1}{1+x} int nx^{n-1} d xright]^1_0
- left[int frac{1}{left(1+xright)^2} left(int nx^{n-1} dxright) d xright]^1_0 \
&= left[frac{x^n}{1+x}right]^1_0
- left[int frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d xright]^1_0 \
&= frac{1}{2} - intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+xright)^2} d x \
end{align}
Now we estimate the remaining integral in the expression
begin{align}
I(n) &= intlimits_0^1 frac{x^n}{left(1+x right)^2} d x \
&leq intlimits_0^1 x^n d x \
&= frac{1}{n+1}
end{align}
Hence, $I(n) to 0$ as $n to infty$.
And so, the expression can be rewritten as
begin{align}
limlimits_{n to infty} s_n = frac{1}{2}
end{align}
edited Feb 1 '13 at 19:33
answered Feb 1 '13 at 18:06
user14082
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What do you mean by $I(n) = e^{log(x)n}$ in the last line?
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– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:15
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Added the explanation. I hope its correct.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:23
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It is not; you can't just pull a $log x$ out of the integral since you're integrating with respect to $x$.
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– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:29
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Arrrrgh. Thanks.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
4
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$I(n)leq int_0^1 x^n dx={1over n+1}.$
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– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 19:19
add a comment |
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What do you mean by $I(n) = e^{log(x)n}$ in the last line?
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Added the explanation. I hope its correct.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:23
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It is not; you can't just pull a $log x$ out of the integral since you're integrating with respect to $x$.
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:29
$begingroup$
Arrrrgh. Thanks.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
4
$begingroup$
$I(n)leq int_0^1 x^n dx={1over n+1}.$
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 19:19
$begingroup$
What do you mean by $I(n) = e^{log(x)n}$ in the last line?
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:15
$begingroup$
What do you mean by $I(n) = e^{log(x)n}$ in the last line?
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Added the explanation. I hope its correct.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:23
$begingroup$
Added the explanation. I hope its correct.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:23
$begingroup$
It is not; you can't just pull a $log x$ out of the integral since you're integrating with respect to $x$.
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:29
$begingroup$
It is not; you can't just pull a $log x$ out of the integral since you're integrating with respect to $x$.
$endgroup$
– Antonio Vargas
Feb 1 '13 at 18:29
$begingroup$
Arrrrgh. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
$begingroup$
Arrrrgh. Thanks.
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
4
4
$begingroup$
$I(n)leq int_0^1 x^n dx={1over n+1}.$
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– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 19:19
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$I(n)leq int_0^1 x^n dx={1over n+1}.$
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 19:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We use a basic result in calculus, namely $lim_{nto infty}nint_0^1x^nf(x) dx=f(1)$, $f$ continuous on $[0,1]$
$$lim_{nto infty}left(frac{n}{n-1}times (n-1)intlimits_0^1 x^{n-1} frac{1}{(1+x)} dxright)=frac{1}{2}$$
Chris.
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What is the name or proof of this basic result?
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– Alex
Feb 1 '13 at 19:53
2
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@Alex: I don't know if it has a name. Our teacher told us once that the result may be easily proved with the calculus knowledge in high school. This link will help you: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168163/…
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– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:01
1
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Nice solution Chris'ssister! :-) Your question and the corresponding answers provide a decent tool. :-)
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 20:32
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@OrangeHarvester: Thanks! :-) are you Jayesh? (sister here now)
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– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:44
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Yes. I am Jayesh. Name changed for a month.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 22:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We use a basic result in calculus, namely $lim_{nto infty}nint_0^1x^nf(x) dx=f(1)$, $f$ continuous on $[0,1]$
$$lim_{nto infty}left(frac{n}{n-1}times (n-1)intlimits_0^1 x^{n-1} frac{1}{(1+x)} dxright)=frac{1}{2}$$
Chris.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What is the name or proof of this basic result?
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 1 '13 at 19:53
2
$begingroup$
@Alex: I don't know if it has a name. Our teacher told us once that the result may be easily proved with the calculus knowledge in high school. This link will help you: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168163/…
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:01
1
$begingroup$
Nice solution Chris'ssister! :-) Your question and the corresponding answers provide a decent tool. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 20:32
$begingroup$
@OrangeHarvester: Thanks! :-) are you Jayesh? (sister here now)
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:44
$begingroup$
Yes. I am Jayesh. Name changed for a month.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 22:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We use a basic result in calculus, namely $lim_{nto infty}nint_0^1x^nf(x) dx=f(1)$, $f$ continuous on $[0,1]$
$$lim_{nto infty}left(frac{n}{n-1}times (n-1)intlimits_0^1 x^{n-1} frac{1}{(1+x)} dxright)=frac{1}{2}$$
Chris.
$endgroup$
We use a basic result in calculus, namely $lim_{nto infty}nint_0^1x^nf(x) dx=f(1)$, $f$ continuous on $[0,1]$
$$lim_{nto infty}left(frac{n}{n-1}times (n-1)intlimits_0^1 x^{n-1} frac{1}{(1+x)} dxright)=frac{1}{2}$$
Chris.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21
Community♦
1
1
answered Feb 1 '13 at 19:36
user 1357113user 1357113
22.4k877226
22.4k877226
$begingroup$
What is the name or proof of this basic result?
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 1 '13 at 19:53
2
$begingroup$
@Alex: I don't know if it has a name. Our teacher told us once that the result may be easily proved with the calculus knowledge in high school. This link will help you: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168163/…
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:01
1
$begingroup$
Nice solution Chris'ssister! :-) Your question and the corresponding answers provide a decent tool. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 20:32
$begingroup$
@OrangeHarvester: Thanks! :-) are you Jayesh? (sister here now)
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:44
$begingroup$
Yes. I am Jayesh. Name changed for a month.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 22:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What is the name or proof of this basic result?
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 1 '13 at 19:53
2
$begingroup$
@Alex: I don't know if it has a name. Our teacher told us once that the result may be easily proved with the calculus knowledge in high school. This link will help you: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168163/…
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:01
1
$begingroup$
Nice solution Chris'ssister! :-) Your question and the corresponding answers provide a decent tool. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 20:32
$begingroup$
@OrangeHarvester: Thanks! :-) are you Jayesh? (sister here now)
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:44
$begingroup$
Yes. I am Jayesh. Name changed for a month.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 22:15
$begingroup$
What is the name or proof of this basic result?
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 1 '13 at 19:53
$begingroup$
What is the name or proof of this basic result?
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 1 '13 at 19:53
2
2
$begingroup$
@Alex: I don't know if it has a name. Our teacher told us once that the result may be easily proved with the calculus knowledge in high school. This link will help you: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168163/…
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:01
$begingroup$
@Alex: I don't know if it has a name. Our teacher told us once that the result may be easily proved with the calculus knowledge in high school. This link will help you: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168163/…
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:01
1
1
$begingroup$
Nice solution Chris'ssister! :-) Your question and the corresponding answers provide a decent tool. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 20:32
$begingroup$
Nice solution Chris'ssister! :-) Your question and the corresponding answers provide a decent tool. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 20:32
$begingroup$
@OrangeHarvester: Thanks! :-) are you Jayesh? (sister here now)
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:44
$begingroup$
@OrangeHarvester: Thanks! :-) are you Jayesh? (sister here now)
$endgroup$
– user 1357113
Feb 1 '13 at 20:44
$begingroup$
Yes. I am Jayesh. Name changed for a month.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 22:15
$begingroup$
Yes. I am Jayesh. Name changed for a month.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 22:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a solution based on order statistics, similar to my answer here.
Let $X_1,dots, X_n$ be i.i.d. uniform(0,1) random variables.
The distribution function of $X$ is $F(x)=x$ and density $f(x)=1$ for $0leq xleq 1$.
Now let $M=max(X_1,dots, X_n)$; its density function is
$$f_M(x)=n F(x)^{n-1}f_X(x)=n,x^{n-1}text{ for }0leq xleq 1.$$
Also, it is not hard to see that $Mto 1$ in distribution as $ntoinfty$.
Now $$int_0^1 {n x^{n-1}over 1+x} ,dx =int_0^1 {1over 1+x}, f_M(x) ,dx
=mathbb{E}left({1over 1+M}right).$$
This converges to
${1over 1+1}={1over 2}$ as $ntoinfty$.
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Thanks. A different solution. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:37
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@MikeSpivey Yeah, it's the way I think. Some of the other answers here are great, too.
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– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:06
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@Byron: If I may say so, I often enjoy your answers that use probability and statistics to answer questions that appear to be outside of those fields. They are close enough to the way I think that I can appreciate them, but I often wouldn't think of those arguments myself.
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– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:09
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@MikeSpivey Thanks for the kind words. I learn a lot from your answers, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a solution based on order statistics, similar to my answer here.
Let $X_1,dots, X_n$ be i.i.d. uniform(0,1) random variables.
The distribution function of $X$ is $F(x)=x$ and density $f(x)=1$ for $0leq xleq 1$.
Now let $M=max(X_1,dots, X_n)$; its density function is
$$f_M(x)=n F(x)^{n-1}f_X(x)=n,x^{n-1}text{ for }0leq xleq 1.$$
Also, it is not hard to see that $Mto 1$ in distribution as $ntoinfty$.
Now $$int_0^1 {n x^{n-1}over 1+x} ,dx =int_0^1 {1over 1+x}, f_M(x) ,dx
=mathbb{E}left({1over 1+M}right).$$
This converges to
${1over 1+1}={1over 2}$ as $ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks. A different solution. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:37
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@MikeSpivey Yeah, it's the way I think. Some of the other answers here are great, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:06
$begingroup$
@Byron: If I may say so, I often enjoy your answers that use probability and statistics to answer questions that appear to be outside of those fields. They are close enough to the way I think that I can appreciate them, but I often wouldn't think of those arguments myself.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:09
$begingroup$
@MikeSpivey Thanks for the kind words. I learn a lot from your answers, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a solution based on order statistics, similar to my answer here.
Let $X_1,dots, X_n$ be i.i.d. uniform(0,1) random variables.
The distribution function of $X$ is $F(x)=x$ and density $f(x)=1$ for $0leq xleq 1$.
Now let $M=max(X_1,dots, X_n)$; its density function is
$$f_M(x)=n F(x)^{n-1}f_X(x)=n,x^{n-1}text{ for }0leq xleq 1.$$
Also, it is not hard to see that $Mto 1$ in distribution as $ntoinfty$.
Now $$int_0^1 {n x^{n-1}over 1+x} ,dx =int_0^1 {1over 1+x}, f_M(x) ,dx
=mathbb{E}left({1over 1+M}right).$$
This converges to
${1over 1+1}={1over 2}$ as $ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
Here's a solution based on order statistics, similar to my answer here.
Let $X_1,dots, X_n$ be i.i.d. uniform(0,1) random variables.
The distribution function of $X$ is $F(x)=x$ and density $f(x)=1$ for $0leq xleq 1$.
Now let $M=max(X_1,dots, X_n)$; its density function is
$$f_M(x)=n F(x)^{n-1}f_X(x)=n,x^{n-1}text{ for }0leq xleq 1.$$
Also, it is not hard to see that $Mto 1$ in distribution as $ntoinfty$.
Now $$int_0^1 {n x^{n-1}over 1+x} ,dx =int_0^1 {1over 1+x}, f_M(x) ,dx
=mathbb{E}left({1over 1+M}right).$$
This converges to
${1over 1+1}={1over 2}$ as $ntoinfty$.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20
Community♦
1
1
answered Feb 1 '13 at 18:30
user940
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Thanks. A different solution. :-)
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– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:37
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@MikeSpivey Yeah, it's the way I think. Some of the other answers here are great, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:06
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@Byron: If I may say so, I often enjoy your answers that use probability and statistics to answer questions that appear to be outside of those fields. They are close enough to the way I think that I can appreciate them, but I often wouldn't think of those arguments myself.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:09
$begingroup$
@MikeSpivey Thanks for the kind words. I learn a lot from your answers, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks. A different solution. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:37
$begingroup$
@MikeSpivey Yeah, it's the way I think. Some of the other answers here are great, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:06
$begingroup$
@Byron: If I may say so, I often enjoy your answers that use probability and statistics to answer questions that appear to be outside of those fields. They are close enough to the way I think that I can appreciate them, but I often wouldn't think of those arguments myself.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:09
$begingroup$
@MikeSpivey Thanks for the kind words. I learn a lot from your answers, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:12
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Thanks. A different solution. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:37
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Thanks. A different solution. :-)
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:37
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@MikeSpivey Yeah, it's the way I think. Some of the other answers here are great, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:06
$begingroup$
@MikeSpivey Yeah, it's the way I think. Some of the other answers here are great, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:06
$begingroup$
@Byron: If I may say so, I often enjoy your answers that use probability and statistics to answer questions that appear to be outside of those fields. They are close enough to the way I think that I can appreciate them, but I often wouldn't think of those arguments myself.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:09
$begingroup$
@Byron: If I may say so, I often enjoy your answers that use probability and statistics to answer questions that appear to be outside of those fields. They are close enough to the way I think that I can appreciate them, but I often wouldn't think of those arguments myself.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:09
$begingroup$
@MikeSpivey Thanks for the kind words. I learn a lot from your answers, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:12
$begingroup$
@MikeSpivey Thanks for the kind words. I learn a lot from your answers, too.
$endgroup$
– user940
Feb 1 '13 at 21:12
add a comment |
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Notice
(1) $frac{s_n}{n} + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1} = int_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = frac{1}{n} implies s_n + s_{n+1} = 1 + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1}$.
(2) $s_n = nint_0^1 frac{x^{n-1}}{1+x} dx < nint_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = 1$
(3) $s_{n+1} - s_n = int_0^1 frac{d (x^{n+1}-x^n)}{1+x} = int_0^1 x^n frac{1-x}{(1+x)^2} dx > 0$
(2+3) $implies s = lim_{ntoinfty} s_n$ exists and (1+2) $implies s+s = 1 + 0 implies s = frac{1}{2}$.
In any event, $s_n$ can be evaluated exactly to $n (psi(n) - psi(frac{n}{2}) - ln{2})$ where $psi(x)$ is the diagamma function. Since $psi(x) approx ln(x) - frac{1}{2x} - frac{1}{12x^2} + frac{1}{120x^4} + ... $ as $x to infty$, we know:
$$s_n approx frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4 n} - frac{1}{8 n^3} + ...$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Notice
(1) $frac{s_n}{n} + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1} = int_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = frac{1}{n} implies s_n + s_{n+1} = 1 + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1}$.
(2) $s_n = nint_0^1 frac{x^{n-1}}{1+x} dx < nint_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = 1$
(3) $s_{n+1} - s_n = int_0^1 frac{d (x^{n+1}-x^n)}{1+x} = int_0^1 x^n frac{1-x}{(1+x)^2} dx > 0$
(2+3) $implies s = lim_{ntoinfty} s_n$ exists and (1+2) $implies s+s = 1 + 0 implies s = frac{1}{2}$.
In any event, $s_n$ can be evaluated exactly to $n (psi(n) - psi(frac{n}{2}) - ln{2})$ where $psi(x)$ is the diagamma function. Since $psi(x) approx ln(x) - frac{1}{2x} - frac{1}{12x^2} + frac{1}{120x^4} + ... $ as $x to infty$, we know:
$$s_n approx frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4 n} - frac{1}{8 n^3} + ...$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Notice
(1) $frac{s_n}{n} + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1} = int_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = frac{1}{n} implies s_n + s_{n+1} = 1 + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1}$.
(2) $s_n = nint_0^1 frac{x^{n-1}}{1+x} dx < nint_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = 1$
(3) $s_{n+1} - s_n = int_0^1 frac{d (x^{n+1}-x^n)}{1+x} = int_0^1 x^n frac{1-x}{(1+x)^2} dx > 0$
(2+3) $implies s = lim_{ntoinfty} s_n$ exists and (1+2) $implies s+s = 1 + 0 implies s = frac{1}{2}$.
In any event, $s_n$ can be evaluated exactly to $n (psi(n) - psi(frac{n}{2}) - ln{2})$ where $psi(x)$ is the diagamma function. Since $psi(x) approx ln(x) - frac{1}{2x} - frac{1}{12x^2} + frac{1}{120x^4} + ... $ as $x to infty$, we know:
$$s_n approx frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4 n} - frac{1}{8 n^3} + ...$$
$endgroup$
Notice
(1) $frac{s_n}{n} + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1} = int_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = frac{1}{n} implies s_n + s_{n+1} = 1 + frac{s_{n+1}}{n+1}$.
(2) $s_n = nint_0^1 frac{x^{n-1}}{1+x} dx < nint_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = 1$
(3) $s_{n+1} - s_n = int_0^1 frac{d (x^{n+1}-x^n)}{1+x} = int_0^1 x^n frac{1-x}{(1+x)^2} dx > 0$
(2+3) $implies s = lim_{ntoinfty} s_n$ exists and (1+2) $implies s+s = 1 + 0 implies s = frac{1}{2}$.
In any event, $s_n$ can be evaluated exactly to $n (psi(n) - psi(frac{n}{2}) - ln{2})$ where $psi(x)$ is the diagamma function. Since $psi(x) approx ln(x) - frac{1}{2x} - frac{1}{12x^2} + frac{1}{120x^4} + ... $ as $x to infty$, we know:
$$s_n approx frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4 n} - frac{1}{8 n^3} + ...$$
answered Feb 1 '13 at 20:56
achille huiachille hui
95.7k5131258
95.7k5131258
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Using the substitution $xmapsto x^{1/n}$ and Dominated Convergence,
$$
begin{align}
lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x},mathrm{d}x
&=lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac1{1+x^{1/n}},mathrm{d}x\
&=int_0^1frac12,mathrm{d}x\
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Nice Robjohn . I have a doubt . When $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty} $ and $0<x<1.$. Then $(x)^n=0.$ So $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty}int^{1}_{0}frac{n x^{n-1}}{1+x}dx=0$. please explain me where i am wrong. Thanks
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– D Tiwari
Oct 2 '18 at 7:16
1
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@DurgeshTiwari: You cannot simply exchange limits and integrals. There are rules for doing so. Above, I used Dominated Convergence, which says that if $|f_n(x)|le g(x)$ for all $n$ and $xin[0,1]$ and $int_0^1g(x),mathrm{d}xltinfty$, then $$limlimits_{ntoinfty}int_0^1f_n(x),mathrm{d}x=int_0^1limlimits_{ntoinfty}f_n(x),mathrm{d}x$$ There is no such $g(x)$ that dominates $frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x}$ for all $n$.
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– robjohn♦
Oct 2 '18 at 8:34
add a comment |
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Using the substitution $xmapsto x^{1/n}$ and Dominated Convergence,
$$
begin{align}
lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x},mathrm{d}x
&=lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac1{1+x^{1/n}},mathrm{d}x\
&=int_0^1frac12,mathrm{d}x\
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Nice Robjohn . I have a doubt . When $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty} $ and $0<x<1.$. Then $(x)^n=0.$ So $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty}int^{1}_{0}frac{n x^{n-1}}{1+x}dx=0$. please explain me where i am wrong. Thanks
$endgroup$
– D Tiwari
Oct 2 '18 at 7:16
1
$begingroup$
@DurgeshTiwari: You cannot simply exchange limits and integrals. There are rules for doing so. Above, I used Dominated Convergence, which says that if $|f_n(x)|le g(x)$ for all $n$ and $xin[0,1]$ and $int_0^1g(x),mathrm{d}xltinfty$, then $$limlimits_{ntoinfty}int_0^1f_n(x),mathrm{d}x=int_0^1limlimits_{ntoinfty}f_n(x),mathrm{d}x$$ There is no such $g(x)$ that dominates $frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x}$ for all $n$.
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– robjohn♦
Oct 2 '18 at 8:34
add a comment |
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Using the substitution $xmapsto x^{1/n}$ and Dominated Convergence,
$$
begin{align}
lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x},mathrm{d}x
&=lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac1{1+x^{1/n}},mathrm{d}x\
&=int_0^1frac12,mathrm{d}x\
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
$endgroup$
Using the substitution $xmapsto x^{1/n}$ and Dominated Convergence,
$$
begin{align}
lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x},mathrm{d}x
&=lim_{ntoinfty}int_0^1frac1{1+x^{1/n}},mathrm{d}x\
&=int_0^1frac12,mathrm{d}x\
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
answered Jan 10 '15 at 12:29
robjohn♦robjohn
265k27304626
265k27304626
$begingroup$
Nice Robjohn . I have a doubt . When $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty} $ and $0<x<1.$. Then $(x)^n=0.$ So $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty}int^{1}_{0}frac{n x^{n-1}}{1+x}dx=0$. please explain me where i am wrong. Thanks
$endgroup$
– D Tiwari
Oct 2 '18 at 7:16
1
$begingroup$
@DurgeshTiwari: You cannot simply exchange limits and integrals. There are rules for doing so. Above, I used Dominated Convergence, which says that if $|f_n(x)|le g(x)$ for all $n$ and $xin[0,1]$ and $int_0^1g(x),mathrm{d}xltinfty$, then $$limlimits_{ntoinfty}int_0^1f_n(x),mathrm{d}x=int_0^1limlimits_{ntoinfty}f_n(x),mathrm{d}x$$ There is no such $g(x)$ that dominates $frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x}$ for all $n$.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Oct 2 '18 at 8:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Nice Robjohn . I have a doubt . When $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty} $ and $0<x<1.$. Then $(x)^n=0.$ So $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty}int^{1}_{0}frac{n x^{n-1}}{1+x}dx=0$. please explain me where i am wrong. Thanks
$endgroup$
– D Tiwari
Oct 2 '18 at 7:16
1
$begingroup$
@DurgeshTiwari: You cannot simply exchange limits and integrals. There are rules for doing so. Above, I used Dominated Convergence, which says that if $|f_n(x)|le g(x)$ for all $n$ and $xin[0,1]$ and $int_0^1g(x),mathrm{d}xltinfty$, then $$limlimits_{ntoinfty}int_0^1f_n(x),mathrm{d}x=int_0^1limlimits_{ntoinfty}f_n(x),mathrm{d}x$$ There is no such $g(x)$ that dominates $frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x}$ for all $n$.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Oct 2 '18 at 8:34
$begingroup$
Nice Robjohn . I have a doubt . When $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty} $ and $0<x<1.$. Then $(x)^n=0.$ So $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty}int^{1}_{0}frac{n x^{n-1}}{1+x}dx=0$. please explain me where i am wrong. Thanks
$endgroup$
– D Tiwari
Oct 2 '18 at 7:16
$begingroup$
Nice Robjohn . I have a doubt . When $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty} $ and $0<x<1.$. Then $(x)^n=0.$ So $displaystyle lim_{nrightarrow infty}int^{1}_{0}frac{n x^{n-1}}{1+x}dx=0$. please explain me where i am wrong. Thanks
$endgroup$
– D Tiwari
Oct 2 '18 at 7:16
1
1
$begingroup$
@DurgeshTiwari: You cannot simply exchange limits and integrals. There are rules for doing so. Above, I used Dominated Convergence, which says that if $|f_n(x)|le g(x)$ for all $n$ and $xin[0,1]$ and $int_0^1g(x),mathrm{d}xltinfty$, then $$limlimits_{ntoinfty}int_0^1f_n(x),mathrm{d}x=int_0^1limlimits_{ntoinfty}f_n(x),mathrm{d}x$$ There is no such $g(x)$ that dominates $frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x}$ for all $n$.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Oct 2 '18 at 8:34
$begingroup$
@DurgeshTiwari: You cannot simply exchange limits and integrals. There are rules for doing so. Above, I used Dominated Convergence, which says that if $|f_n(x)|le g(x)$ for all $n$ and $xin[0,1]$ and $int_0^1g(x),mathrm{d}xltinfty$, then $$limlimits_{ntoinfty}int_0^1f_n(x),mathrm{d}x=int_0^1limlimits_{ntoinfty}f_n(x),mathrm{d}x$$ There is no such $g(x)$ that dominates $frac{nx^{n-1}}{1+x}$ for all $n$.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Oct 2 '18 at 8:34
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Is the downvote because of self-answering?
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:08
$begingroup$
Probably. Why did you post a question to which you already knew the answer?
$endgroup$
– Todd Wilcox
Feb 1 '13 at 18:09
2
$begingroup$
A few reasons 1. It gives me oppurtunity to verify that the solution is indeed correct. (I self study, so even though I get an answer and I am pretty sure about it, there is no real way to verify the solution completely.) 2. It allows probably other people to offer me better solutions. 3. I can do so on a blog, but then it might not get the same attention on the blog. 4. MSE's editing capabilities are better than almost all other blogging software I have found.
$endgroup$
– user14082
Feb 1 '13 at 18:10
1
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote either, but it seems stylistically and logically wrong: the question is "is the following I reproduce in the question text correct?", the answer "yes/no" with reason. I jabs answered my own questions, when I didn't get answers or, after my thought, believed I could improve on other posting; answering your own questions isn't wrong per se. It's also simply more convenient to have the actual question on top.
$endgroup$
– gnometorule
Feb 1 '13 at 18:42
2
$begingroup$
+1: I see no problem posting a question for which you already know the answer and asking for alternative approaches.
$endgroup$
– Mike Spivey
Feb 1 '13 at 21:02