For functions of an RV, why doesn’t equating PDFs work?
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Let $ X sim N(mu, sigma^2) $ and $Z = frac{X-mu}{sigma}$. Suppose I want to prove $f_Z(x) = frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}} exp(-frac{1}{2}x^2)$. I tried reasoning:
$$
f_Z(x) = P(Z=x) = P(frac{X-mu}{sigma} = x) = P(X = sigma x + mu) = f_X(sigma x + mu) \
= frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} left(frac{ (sigma x + mu) - mu }{sigma}right)^2 right) = frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} x^2 right)
$$
However, note the pesky $frac1sigma$ that still remains in the above expression. That shouldn’t be there. Why is this happening? Is it invalid to equate the PDFs as I did?
Edit: From the comments, I realized my blooper: $f_Z(x)$ is not in fact the same as $P(Z=x)$, because of course the latter is always zero for continuous variables like $X$ and $Z$!
My revised question would be: Is there any way to understand the distribution of a function of an RV without going through the CDF, some method that works using PDFs?
statistics random-variables
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $ X sim N(mu, sigma^2) $ and $Z = frac{X-mu}{sigma}$. Suppose I want to prove $f_Z(x) = frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}} exp(-frac{1}{2}x^2)$. I tried reasoning:
$$
f_Z(x) = P(Z=x) = P(frac{X-mu}{sigma} = x) = P(X = sigma x + mu) = f_X(sigma x + mu) \
= frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} left(frac{ (sigma x + mu) - mu }{sigma}right)^2 right) = frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} x^2 right)
$$
However, note the pesky $frac1sigma$ that still remains in the above expression. That shouldn’t be there. Why is this happening? Is it invalid to equate the PDFs as I did?
Edit: From the comments, I realized my blooper: $f_Z(x)$ is not in fact the same as $P(Z=x)$, because of course the latter is always zero for continuous variables like $X$ and $Z$!
My revised question would be: Is there any way to understand the distribution of a function of an RV without going through the CDF, some method that works using PDFs?
statistics random-variables
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1
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You are using arguments valid only for discrete RV's to continuous RV's. Here $P(X=x)=0$ for all $x$ and $P(Z=z)=0$ for all $z$.
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– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 14 at 5:27
1
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$P(Z=x)=0$, not $F_Z(x)$.
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– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 14 at 5:27
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@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, what a brain blooper! I hope putting up this question might help someone equally dumbstruck in the future.
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– Alex
Jan 14 at 5:57
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You want to use a combination of (a) if $Y=X+a$ then $f_Y(y)=f_X(y-a)$ and (b) if $W=bX$ then $f_W(w)=frac1{|b|}f_X(w/b)$. While the first of these is in a sense obvious, the second needs an argument something like the CDF, or the integral of the density being $1$, or the use of the Jacobian
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 14 at 8:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $ X sim N(mu, sigma^2) $ and $Z = frac{X-mu}{sigma}$. Suppose I want to prove $f_Z(x) = frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}} exp(-frac{1}{2}x^2)$. I tried reasoning:
$$
f_Z(x) = P(Z=x) = P(frac{X-mu}{sigma} = x) = P(X = sigma x + mu) = f_X(sigma x + mu) \
= frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} left(frac{ (sigma x + mu) - mu }{sigma}right)^2 right) = frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} x^2 right)
$$
However, note the pesky $frac1sigma$ that still remains in the above expression. That shouldn’t be there. Why is this happening? Is it invalid to equate the PDFs as I did?
Edit: From the comments, I realized my blooper: $f_Z(x)$ is not in fact the same as $P(Z=x)$, because of course the latter is always zero for continuous variables like $X$ and $Z$!
My revised question would be: Is there any way to understand the distribution of a function of an RV without going through the CDF, some method that works using PDFs?
statistics random-variables
$endgroup$
Let $ X sim N(mu, sigma^2) $ and $Z = frac{X-mu}{sigma}$. Suppose I want to prove $f_Z(x) = frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}} exp(-frac{1}{2}x^2)$. I tried reasoning:
$$
f_Z(x) = P(Z=x) = P(frac{X-mu}{sigma} = x) = P(X = sigma x + mu) = f_X(sigma x + mu) \
= frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} left(frac{ (sigma x + mu) - mu }{sigma}right)^2 right) = frac1{sqrt{2pi}} frac1{sigma} expleft(-frac{1}{2} x^2 right)
$$
However, note the pesky $frac1sigma$ that still remains in the above expression. That shouldn’t be there. Why is this happening? Is it invalid to equate the PDFs as I did?
Edit: From the comments, I realized my blooper: $f_Z(x)$ is not in fact the same as $P(Z=x)$, because of course the latter is always zero for continuous variables like $X$ and $Z$!
My revised question would be: Is there any way to understand the distribution of a function of an RV without going through the CDF, some method that works using PDFs?
statistics random-variables
statistics random-variables
edited Jan 14 at 6:00
Alex
asked Jan 14 at 5:24
AlexAlex
11
11
1
$begingroup$
You are using arguments valid only for discrete RV's to continuous RV's. Here $P(X=x)=0$ for all $x$ and $P(Z=z)=0$ for all $z$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 14 at 5:27
1
$begingroup$
$P(Z=x)=0$, not $F_Z(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 14 at 5:27
$begingroup$
@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, what a brain blooper! I hope putting up this question might help someone equally dumbstruck in the future.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Jan 14 at 5:57
$begingroup$
You want to use a combination of (a) if $Y=X+a$ then $f_Y(y)=f_X(y-a)$ and (b) if $W=bX$ then $f_W(w)=frac1{|b|}f_X(w/b)$. While the first of these is in a sense obvious, the second needs an argument something like the CDF, or the integral of the density being $1$, or the use of the Jacobian
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 14 at 8:09
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
You are using arguments valid only for discrete RV's to continuous RV's. Here $P(X=x)=0$ for all $x$ and $P(Z=z)=0$ for all $z$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 14 at 5:27
1
$begingroup$
$P(Z=x)=0$, not $F_Z(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 14 at 5:27
$begingroup$
@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, what a brain blooper! I hope putting up this question might help someone equally dumbstruck in the future.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Jan 14 at 5:57
$begingroup$
You want to use a combination of (a) if $Y=X+a$ then $f_Y(y)=f_X(y-a)$ and (b) if $W=bX$ then $f_W(w)=frac1{|b|}f_X(w/b)$. While the first of these is in a sense obvious, the second needs an argument something like the CDF, or the integral of the density being $1$, or the use of the Jacobian
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 14 at 8:09
1
1
$begingroup$
You are using arguments valid only for discrete RV's to continuous RV's. Here $P(X=x)=0$ for all $x$ and $P(Z=z)=0$ for all $z$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 14 at 5:27
$begingroup$
You are using arguments valid only for discrete RV's to continuous RV's. Here $P(X=x)=0$ for all $x$ and $P(Z=z)=0$ for all $z$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 14 at 5:27
1
1
$begingroup$
$P(Z=x)=0$, not $F_Z(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 14 at 5:27
$begingroup$
$P(Z=x)=0$, not $F_Z(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 14 at 5:27
$begingroup$
@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, what a brain blooper! I hope putting up this question might help someone equally dumbstruck in the future.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Jan 14 at 5:57
$begingroup$
@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, what a brain blooper! I hope putting up this question might help someone equally dumbstruck in the future.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Jan 14 at 5:57
$begingroup$
You want to use a combination of (a) if $Y=X+a$ then $f_Y(y)=f_X(y-a)$ and (b) if $W=bX$ then $f_W(w)=frac1{|b|}f_X(w/b)$. While the first of these is in a sense obvious, the second needs an argument something like the CDF, or the integral of the density being $1$, or the use of the Jacobian
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 14 at 8:09
$begingroup$
You want to use a combination of (a) if $Y=X+a$ then $f_Y(y)=f_X(y-a)$ and (b) if $W=bX$ then $f_W(w)=frac1{|b|}f_X(w/b)$. While the first of these is in a sense obvious, the second needs an argument something like the CDF, or the integral of the density being $1$, or the use of the Jacobian
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 14 at 8:09
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
You are using arguments valid only for discrete RV's to continuous RV's. Here $P(X=x)=0$ for all $x$ and $P(Z=z)=0$ for all $z$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 14 at 5:27
1
$begingroup$
$P(Z=x)=0$, not $F_Z(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 14 at 5:27
$begingroup$
@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, what a brain blooper! I hope putting up this question might help someone equally dumbstruck in the future.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Jan 14 at 5:57
$begingroup$
You want to use a combination of (a) if $Y=X+a$ then $f_Y(y)=f_X(y-a)$ and (b) if $W=bX$ then $f_W(w)=frac1{|b|}f_X(w/b)$. While the first of these is in a sense obvious, the second needs an argument something like the CDF, or the integral of the density being $1$, or the use of the Jacobian
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 14 at 8:09