Pointwise convergence for predictable processes implies ucp convergence












2














my task is to proof the following:
Let $H^n$ be a sequence of uniformly bounded predictable processes such that
$$lim_{ntoinfty}H^n_t= 0$$ almost surely holds for all $tgeq 0$.
Then we have $$H^nxrightarrow{ucp} 0,$$which means $sup_{sin [0,T]} H^n_sto 0$ for all $Tgeq 0$.



The problem is, I am not even sure whether this statement is true.
Assume the deterministic process
$$ H^n=begin{cases} t^n&text{for } t<1\
0&text{for } tgeq 1.end{cases}$$



Then we have $$H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$$ but $sup_{sin[0,1]} H^n_s = 1$ and hence $H^nnotxrightarrow{ucp} 0$.



My ansatz for a proof would be to show the statement for continuous processes (which seems fairly easy) and then apply the monotone class theorem.



Can anyone tell me whether this statement is actually true and in case it is, what is wrong with my "counterexample"?



Thank you very much.










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  • The fact that $H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$ is wrong for $t=1$, so your counterexample doesn't prove that the statement that you are trying to prove is false. The almost surely part doesn't refer to the $([0,1], lambda)$ space ( where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure) but to $mathbb{P}$. In you example the $H^n $ are determistic so the convergence is everywhere and not almost everywhere to the indicator function $1_{{1}}(t)$ over $tin [0,1]$.
    – TheBridge
    yesterday












  • Thanks for your comment. The process $H$ is defined to be zero at 1. Hence it is a right continuous process. And for each $t, epsilon>0$ you can find a $Nin mathbb N$ such that $H^n_t<epsilon$ for all $ngeq N$. But there is no $epsilon<1$ such that $H^n_t < epsilon$ for all $tgeq 0$.
    – Agnetha Timara
    yesterday










  • Ok with this specifications (which I missed in my comment) your counterexample is correct and the statement is false ! Your example is the same as the wiki example to show that pointwise convergence doesn't entails uniform convergence on compacts (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_convergence).
    – TheBridge
    yesterday
















2














my task is to proof the following:
Let $H^n$ be a sequence of uniformly bounded predictable processes such that
$$lim_{ntoinfty}H^n_t= 0$$ almost surely holds for all $tgeq 0$.
Then we have $$H^nxrightarrow{ucp} 0,$$which means $sup_{sin [0,T]} H^n_sto 0$ for all $Tgeq 0$.



The problem is, I am not even sure whether this statement is true.
Assume the deterministic process
$$ H^n=begin{cases} t^n&text{for } t<1\
0&text{for } tgeq 1.end{cases}$$



Then we have $$H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$$ but $sup_{sin[0,1]} H^n_s = 1$ and hence $H^nnotxrightarrow{ucp} 0$.



My ansatz for a proof would be to show the statement for continuous processes (which seems fairly easy) and then apply the monotone class theorem.



Can anyone tell me whether this statement is actually true and in case it is, what is wrong with my "counterexample"?



Thank you very much.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • The fact that $H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$ is wrong for $t=1$, so your counterexample doesn't prove that the statement that you are trying to prove is false. The almost surely part doesn't refer to the $([0,1], lambda)$ space ( where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure) but to $mathbb{P}$. In you example the $H^n $ are determistic so the convergence is everywhere and not almost everywhere to the indicator function $1_{{1}}(t)$ over $tin [0,1]$.
    – TheBridge
    yesterday












  • Thanks for your comment. The process $H$ is defined to be zero at 1. Hence it is a right continuous process. And for each $t, epsilon>0$ you can find a $Nin mathbb N$ such that $H^n_t<epsilon$ for all $ngeq N$. But there is no $epsilon<1$ such that $H^n_t < epsilon$ for all $tgeq 0$.
    – Agnetha Timara
    yesterday










  • Ok with this specifications (which I missed in my comment) your counterexample is correct and the statement is false ! Your example is the same as the wiki example to show that pointwise convergence doesn't entails uniform convergence on compacts (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_convergence).
    – TheBridge
    yesterday














2












2








2







my task is to proof the following:
Let $H^n$ be a sequence of uniformly bounded predictable processes such that
$$lim_{ntoinfty}H^n_t= 0$$ almost surely holds for all $tgeq 0$.
Then we have $$H^nxrightarrow{ucp} 0,$$which means $sup_{sin [0,T]} H^n_sto 0$ for all $Tgeq 0$.



The problem is, I am not even sure whether this statement is true.
Assume the deterministic process
$$ H^n=begin{cases} t^n&text{for } t<1\
0&text{for } tgeq 1.end{cases}$$



Then we have $$H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$$ but $sup_{sin[0,1]} H^n_s = 1$ and hence $H^nnotxrightarrow{ucp} 0$.



My ansatz for a proof would be to show the statement for continuous processes (which seems fairly easy) and then apply the monotone class theorem.



Can anyone tell me whether this statement is actually true and in case it is, what is wrong with my "counterexample"?



Thank you very much.










share|cite|improve this question













my task is to proof the following:
Let $H^n$ be a sequence of uniformly bounded predictable processes such that
$$lim_{ntoinfty}H^n_t= 0$$ almost surely holds for all $tgeq 0$.
Then we have $$H^nxrightarrow{ucp} 0,$$which means $sup_{sin [0,T]} H^n_sto 0$ for all $Tgeq 0$.



The problem is, I am not even sure whether this statement is true.
Assume the deterministic process
$$ H^n=begin{cases} t^n&text{for } t<1\
0&text{for } tgeq 1.end{cases}$$



Then we have $$H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$$ but $sup_{sin[0,1]} H^n_s = 1$ and hence $H^nnotxrightarrow{ucp} 0$.



My ansatz for a proof would be to show the statement for continuous processes (which seems fairly easy) and then apply the monotone class theorem.



Can anyone tell me whether this statement is actually true and in case it is, what is wrong with my "counterexample"?



Thank you very much.







convergence stochastic-processes stochastic-calculus






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share|cite|improve this question











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asked 2 days ago









Agnetha TimaraAgnetha Timara

1086




1086












  • The fact that $H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$ is wrong for $t=1$, so your counterexample doesn't prove that the statement that you are trying to prove is false. The almost surely part doesn't refer to the $([0,1], lambda)$ space ( where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure) but to $mathbb{P}$. In you example the $H^n $ are determistic so the convergence is everywhere and not almost everywhere to the indicator function $1_{{1}}(t)$ over $tin [0,1]$.
    – TheBridge
    yesterday












  • Thanks for your comment. The process $H$ is defined to be zero at 1. Hence it is a right continuous process. And for each $t, epsilon>0$ you can find a $Nin mathbb N$ such that $H^n_t<epsilon$ for all $ngeq N$. But there is no $epsilon<1$ such that $H^n_t < epsilon$ for all $tgeq 0$.
    – Agnetha Timara
    yesterday










  • Ok with this specifications (which I missed in my comment) your counterexample is correct and the statement is false ! Your example is the same as the wiki example to show that pointwise convergence doesn't entails uniform convergence on compacts (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_convergence).
    – TheBridge
    yesterday


















  • The fact that $H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$ is wrong for $t=1$, so your counterexample doesn't prove that the statement that you are trying to prove is false. The almost surely part doesn't refer to the $([0,1], lambda)$ space ( where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure) but to $mathbb{P}$. In you example the $H^n $ are determistic so the convergence is everywhere and not almost everywhere to the indicator function $1_{{1}}(t)$ over $tin [0,1]$.
    – TheBridge
    yesterday












  • Thanks for your comment. The process $H$ is defined to be zero at 1. Hence it is a right continuous process. And for each $t, epsilon>0$ you can find a $Nin mathbb N$ such that $H^n_t<epsilon$ for all $ngeq N$. But there is no $epsilon<1$ such that $H^n_t < epsilon$ for all $tgeq 0$.
    – Agnetha Timara
    yesterday










  • Ok with this specifications (which I missed in my comment) your counterexample is correct and the statement is false ! Your example is the same as the wiki example to show that pointwise convergence doesn't entails uniform convergence on compacts (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_convergence).
    – TheBridge
    yesterday
















The fact that $H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$ is wrong for $t=1$, so your counterexample doesn't prove that the statement that you are trying to prove is false. The almost surely part doesn't refer to the $([0,1], lambda)$ space ( where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure) but to $mathbb{P}$. In you example the $H^n $ are determistic so the convergence is everywhere and not almost everywhere to the indicator function $1_{{1}}(t)$ over $tin [0,1]$.
– TheBridge
yesterday






The fact that $H^n_tto 0 text{ for all } tgeq 0$ is wrong for $t=1$, so your counterexample doesn't prove that the statement that you are trying to prove is false. The almost surely part doesn't refer to the $([0,1], lambda)$ space ( where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure) but to $mathbb{P}$. In you example the $H^n $ are determistic so the convergence is everywhere and not almost everywhere to the indicator function $1_{{1}}(t)$ over $tin [0,1]$.
– TheBridge
yesterday














Thanks for your comment. The process $H$ is defined to be zero at 1. Hence it is a right continuous process. And for each $t, epsilon>0$ you can find a $Nin mathbb N$ such that $H^n_t<epsilon$ for all $ngeq N$. But there is no $epsilon<1$ such that $H^n_t < epsilon$ for all $tgeq 0$.
– Agnetha Timara
yesterday




Thanks for your comment. The process $H$ is defined to be zero at 1. Hence it is a right continuous process. And for each $t, epsilon>0$ you can find a $Nin mathbb N$ such that $H^n_t<epsilon$ for all $ngeq N$. But there is no $epsilon<1$ such that $H^n_t < epsilon$ for all $tgeq 0$.
– Agnetha Timara
yesterday












Ok with this specifications (which I missed in my comment) your counterexample is correct and the statement is false ! Your example is the same as the wiki example to show that pointwise convergence doesn't entails uniform convergence on compacts (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_convergence).
– TheBridge
yesterday




Ok with this specifications (which I missed in my comment) your counterexample is correct and the statement is false ! Your example is the same as the wiki example to show that pointwise convergence doesn't entails uniform convergence on compacts (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_convergence).
– TheBridge
yesterday










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