Leibniz rule when range of integration is defined by inequality












0














I would like to solve this



$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$



where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.



This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.



More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:



$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$



Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be f
    – user42459
    2 days ago










  • I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
    – user42459
    2 days ago












  • Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago
















0














I would like to solve this



$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$



where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.



This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.



More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:



$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$



Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be f
    – user42459
    2 days ago










  • I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
    – user42459
    2 days ago












  • Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago














0












0








0


1





I would like to solve this



$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$



where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.



This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.



More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:



$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$



Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.










share|cite|improve this question















I would like to solve this



$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$



where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.



This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.



More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:



$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$



Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.







calculus integration derivatives lebesgue-integral contour-integration






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago







user42459

















asked 2 days ago









user42459user42459

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  • How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be f
    – user42459
    2 days ago










  • I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
    – user42459
    2 days ago












  • Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago


















  • How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be f
    – user42459
    2 days ago










  • I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • @MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
    – user42459
    2 days ago












  • Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago
















How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago




How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago












@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be f
– user42459
2 days ago




@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be f
– user42459
2 days ago












I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago




I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago












@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago






@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago














Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago




Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago










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