Leibniz rule when range of integration is defined by inequality
I would like to solve this
$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$
where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.
This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.
More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:
$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$
Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.
calculus integration derivatives lebesgue-integral contour-integration
|
show 8 more comments
I would like to solve this
$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$
where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.
This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.
More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:
$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$
Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.
calculus integration derivatives lebesgue-integral contour-integration
How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will bef
– user42459
2 days ago
I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago
Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
|
show 8 more comments
I would like to solve this
$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$
where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.
This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.
More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:
$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$
Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.
calculus integration derivatives lebesgue-integral contour-integration
I would like to solve this
$$frac{partialint_{S(x)>S(theta)}(S(x)-S(theta))dF(x)}{partialtheta}$$
where $S$ is a single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing function and $F$ is a distribution function.
This is more advanced than the Leibniz rule explained in wikipedia or any page that comes up easily. In those pages, range of integration is defined easily as interval.
More generally, I want to solve when there are more than 1 variable, but differentiation is taken by one variable:
$$frac{partialint_{S(x_{1},x_{2})>S(theta_{1},theta_{2})}(S(x_{1},x_{2})-S(theta_{1},theta_{2}))dF(x_{1},x_{2})}{partialtheta_{1}}$$
Does it need to be zero? At least that should be what I will be getting to be consistent with the paper I am reading. I tried to apply the concept in the Leibniz rule as it is defined online but it doesn't seem to be straightforward.
calculus integration derivatives lebesgue-integral contour-integration
calculus integration derivatives lebesgue-integral contour-integration
edited 2 days ago
user42459
asked 2 days ago
user42459user42459
1286
1286
How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will bef
– user42459
2 days ago
I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago
Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
|
show 8 more comments
How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will bef
– user42459
2 days ago
I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago
Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be
f
– user42459
2 days ago
@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be
f
– user42459
2 days ago
I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago
@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago
Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
|
show 8 more comments
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How are $S$ and $F$ defined?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel S is a function. F is a distribution function. So its derivative will be
f
– user42459
2 days ago
I can choose $S$ that will make the formula nonsense because the derivative will not exist. So you need to be more specific about the function.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago
@MattSamuel Thank you. It is single-valued, differentiable, and strictly increasing.
– user42459
2 days ago
Then the integral is over the interval $[theta, infty) $, isn't it?
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago