Consider $X$ a countably infinite set, is ${X cup x}$ with $x notin X$ countably infinite?












0












$begingroup$


$x$ represents an element, not a set.



Assume $S:={X cup x}$ is countably finite. This means that there is a bijection between $S$ and a subset of $mathbb{N}$. This is clearly not the case since $X$ is infinite. I don't really know how to write down that last part rigorously. How can I approach this?



Thanks in advance.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean $x notin X$, not $X notin x$. Also, presumably $X cup {x}$ rather than ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 20 at 19:39








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Very important remark. Even if $X$ is really huge, ${X}$ is very very small. So small that it only has one element, $X$. Hence your set $S$ is countably finite (or simply finite) and it is in bijection with the subset of natural numbers consisting in just one element. The bijection is $Xcup xlongmapsto ninmathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dog_69
    Jan 20 at 19:39












  • $begingroup$
    I did not think about that! Thank you for your thoughtful remark. So if I was to consider $X cup x$, I could say it is countably infinite, right? How could that be proved?
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:44










  • $begingroup$
    @RobertIsrael I edited the question, thanks for noticing. However, I do mean ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zachary If $x$ is countable, yes. Maybe you meant $Xcup{ x}$?
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Jan 20 at 19:47
















0












$begingroup$


$x$ represents an element, not a set.



Assume $S:={X cup x}$ is countably finite. This means that there is a bijection between $S$ and a subset of $mathbb{N}$. This is clearly not the case since $X$ is infinite. I don't really know how to write down that last part rigorously. How can I approach this?



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean $x notin X$, not $X notin x$. Also, presumably $X cup {x}$ rather than ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 20 at 19:39








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Very important remark. Even if $X$ is really huge, ${X}$ is very very small. So small that it only has one element, $X$. Hence your set $S$ is countably finite (or simply finite) and it is in bijection with the subset of natural numbers consisting in just one element. The bijection is $Xcup xlongmapsto ninmathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dog_69
    Jan 20 at 19:39












  • $begingroup$
    I did not think about that! Thank you for your thoughtful remark. So if I was to consider $X cup x$, I could say it is countably infinite, right? How could that be proved?
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:44










  • $begingroup$
    @RobertIsrael I edited the question, thanks for noticing. However, I do mean ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zachary If $x$ is countable, yes. Maybe you meant $Xcup{ x}$?
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Jan 20 at 19:47














0












0








0





$begingroup$


$x$ represents an element, not a set.



Assume $S:={X cup x}$ is countably finite. This means that there is a bijection between $S$ and a subset of $mathbb{N}$. This is clearly not the case since $X$ is infinite. I don't really know how to write down that last part rigorously. How can I approach this?



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$x$ represents an element, not a set.



Assume $S:={X cup x}$ is countably finite. This means that there is a bijection between $S$ and a subset of $mathbb{N}$. This is clearly not the case since $X$ is infinite. I don't really know how to write down that last part rigorously. How can I approach this?



Thanks in advance.







discrete-mathematics






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 20 at 20:04







Zachary

















asked Jan 20 at 19:34









ZacharyZachary

1679




1679








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean $x notin X$, not $X notin x$. Also, presumably $X cup {x}$ rather than ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 20 at 19:39








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Very important remark. Even if $X$ is really huge, ${X}$ is very very small. So small that it only has one element, $X$. Hence your set $S$ is countably finite (or simply finite) and it is in bijection with the subset of natural numbers consisting in just one element. The bijection is $Xcup xlongmapsto ninmathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dog_69
    Jan 20 at 19:39












  • $begingroup$
    I did not think about that! Thank you for your thoughtful remark. So if I was to consider $X cup x$, I could say it is countably infinite, right? How could that be proved?
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:44










  • $begingroup$
    @RobertIsrael I edited the question, thanks for noticing. However, I do mean ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zachary If $x$ is countable, yes. Maybe you meant $Xcup{ x}$?
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Jan 20 at 19:47














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean $x notin X$, not $X notin x$. Also, presumably $X cup {x}$ rather than ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 20 at 19:39








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Very important remark. Even if $X$ is really huge, ${X}$ is very very small. So small that it only has one element, $X$. Hence your set $S$ is countably finite (or simply finite) and it is in bijection with the subset of natural numbers consisting in just one element. The bijection is $Xcup xlongmapsto ninmathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dog_69
    Jan 20 at 19:39












  • $begingroup$
    I did not think about that! Thank you for your thoughtful remark. So if I was to consider $X cup x$, I could say it is countably infinite, right? How could that be proved?
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:44










  • $begingroup$
    @RobertIsrael I edited the question, thanks for noticing. However, I do mean ${X cup x}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Zachary
    Jan 20 at 19:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zachary If $x$ is countable, yes. Maybe you meant $Xcup{ x}$?
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Jan 20 at 19:47








1




1




$begingroup$
You mean $x notin X$, not $X notin x$. Also, presumably $X cup {x}$ rather than ${X cup x}$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Jan 20 at 19:39






$begingroup$
You mean $x notin X$, not $X notin x$. Also, presumably $X cup {x}$ rather than ${X cup x}$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Jan 20 at 19:39






2




2




$begingroup$
Very important remark. Even if $X$ is really huge, ${X}$ is very very small. So small that it only has one element, $X$. Hence your set $S$ is countably finite (or simply finite) and it is in bijection with the subset of natural numbers consisting in just one element. The bijection is $Xcup xlongmapsto ninmathbb N$.
$endgroup$
– Dog_69
Jan 20 at 19:39






$begingroup$
Very important remark. Even if $X$ is really huge, ${X}$ is very very small. So small that it only has one element, $X$. Hence your set $S$ is countably finite (or simply finite) and it is in bijection with the subset of natural numbers consisting in just one element. The bijection is $Xcup xlongmapsto ninmathbb N$.
$endgroup$
– Dog_69
Jan 20 at 19:39














$begingroup$
I did not think about that! Thank you for your thoughtful remark. So if I was to consider $X cup x$, I could say it is countably infinite, right? How could that be proved?
$endgroup$
– Zachary
Jan 20 at 19:44




$begingroup$
I did not think about that! Thank you for your thoughtful remark. So if I was to consider $X cup x$, I could say it is countably infinite, right? How could that be proved?
$endgroup$
– Zachary
Jan 20 at 19:44












$begingroup$
@RobertIsrael I edited the question, thanks for noticing. However, I do mean ${X cup x}$.
$endgroup$
– Zachary
Jan 20 at 19:46




$begingroup$
@RobertIsrael I edited the question, thanks for noticing. However, I do mean ${X cup x}$.
$endgroup$
– Zachary
Jan 20 at 19:46




1




1




$begingroup$
@Zachary If $x$ is countable, yes. Maybe you meant $Xcup{ x}$?
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 20 at 19:47




$begingroup$
@Zachary If $x$ is countable, yes. Maybe you meant $Xcup{ x}$?
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 20 at 19:47










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

As the comments point out, your notation is a little confusing. The set $S = lbrace Xcup xrbrace$ contains one element: $Xcup x$. In particular, $S$ is countable. On the other hand, the set $Xcup x$ may not be countable, even if $X$ is countable. This is because $x$ could be uncountable and disjoint from $X$. The statement you are probably looking for is the following:



Proposition. If $X$ is countable and $xnotin X$, then $Xcup lbrace xrbrace$ is countable.



In fact, something much stronger is true. If $X_1,X_2,dots $ is a sequence of countable sets (indexed over the natural numbers), then $bigcup_i^infty X_i$ is countable. To prove this, use that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable and construct a surjection $mathbb Ntimesmathbb Nrightarrow bigcup_i^infty X_i$. The proposition above is then the special case where $X_1 = X$, $X_2 = lbrace xrbrace$ and $X_i = varnothing$ for $i > 2$.



Addendum. Now how would you prove that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable? Here it may help to visualize $mathbb Ntimes mathbb N$ as the nodes of an infinite grid in the first quadrant of $mathbb R^2$. A natural way to "count" these nodes is to "spiral outwards".






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    $begingroup$

    As the comments point out, your notation is a little confusing. The set $S = lbrace Xcup xrbrace$ contains one element: $Xcup x$. In particular, $S$ is countable. On the other hand, the set $Xcup x$ may not be countable, even if $X$ is countable. This is because $x$ could be uncountable and disjoint from $X$. The statement you are probably looking for is the following:



    Proposition. If $X$ is countable and $xnotin X$, then $Xcup lbrace xrbrace$ is countable.



    In fact, something much stronger is true. If $X_1,X_2,dots $ is a sequence of countable sets (indexed over the natural numbers), then $bigcup_i^infty X_i$ is countable. To prove this, use that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable and construct a surjection $mathbb Ntimesmathbb Nrightarrow bigcup_i^infty X_i$. The proposition above is then the special case where $X_1 = X$, $X_2 = lbrace xrbrace$ and $X_i = varnothing$ for $i > 2$.



    Addendum. Now how would you prove that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable? Here it may help to visualize $mathbb Ntimes mathbb N$ as the nodes of an infinite grid in the first quadrant of $mathbb R^2$. A natural way to "count" these nodes is to "spiral outwards".






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      As the comments point out, your notation is a little confusing. The set $S = lbrace Xcup xrbrace$ contains one element: $Xcup x$. In particular, $S$ is countable. On the other hand, the set $Xcup x$ may not be countable, even if $X$ is countable. This is because $x$ could be uncountable and disjoint from $X$. The statement you are probably looking for is the following:



      Proposition. If $X$ is countable and $xnotin X$, then $Xcup lbrace xrbrace$ is countable.



      In fact, something much stronger is true. If $X_1,X_2,dots $ is a sequence of countable sets (indexed over the natural numbers), then $bigcup_i^infty X_i$ is countable. To prove this, use that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable and construct a surjection $mathbb Ntimesmathbb Nrightarrow bigcup_i^infty X_i$. The proposition above is then the special case where $X_1 = X$, $X_2 = lbrace xrbrace$ and $X_i = varnothing$ for $i > 2$.



      Addendum. Now how would you prove that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable? Here it may help to visualize $mathbb Ntimes mathbb N$ as the nodes of an infinite grid in the first quadrant of $mathbb R^2$. A natural way to "count" these nodes is to "spiral outwards".






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        As the comments point out, your notation is a little confusing. The set $S = lbrace Xcup xrbrace$ contains one element: $Xcup x$. In particular, $S$ is countable. On the other hand, the set $Xcup x$ may not be countable, even if $X$ is countable. This is because $x$ could be uncountable and disjoint from $X$. The statement you are probably looking for is the following:



        Proposition. If $X$ is countable and $xnotin X$, then $Xcup lbrace xrbrace$ is countable.



        In fact, something much stronger is true. If $X_1,X_2,dots $ is a sequence of countable sets (indexed over the natural numbers), then $bigcup_i^infty X_i$ is countable. To prove this, use that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable and construct a surjection $mathbb Ntimesmathbb Nrightarrow bigcup_i^infty X_i$. The proposition above is then the special case where $X_1 = X$, $X_2 = lbrace xrbrace$ and $X_i = varnothing$ for $i > 2$.



        Addendum. Now how would you prove that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable? Here it may help to visualize $mathbb Ntimes mathbb N$ as the nodes of an infinite grid in the first quadrant of $mathbb R^2$. A natural way to "count" these nodes is to "spiral outwards".






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        As the comments point out, your notation is a little confusing. The set $S = lbrace Xcup xrbrace$ contains one element: $Xcup x$. In particular, $S$ is countable. On the other hand, the set $Xcup x$ may not be countable, even if $X$ is countable. This is because $x$ could be uncountable and disjoint from $X$. The statement you are probably looking for is the following:



        Proposition. If $X$ is countable and $xnotin X$, then $Xcup lbrace xrbrace$ is countable.



        In fact, something much stronger is true. If $X_1,X_2,dots $ is a sequence of countable sets (indexed over the natural numbers), then $bigcup_i^infty X_i$ is countable. To prove this, use that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable and construct a surjection $mathbb Ntimesmathbb Nrightarrow bigcup_i^infty X_i$. The proposition above is then the special case where $X_1 = X$, $X_2 = lbrace xrbrace$ and $X_i = varnothing$ for $i > 2$.



        Addendum. Now how would you prove that $mathbb Ntimesmathbb N$ is countable? Here it may help to visualize $mathbb Ntimes mathbb N$ as the nodes of an infinite grid in the first quadrant of $mathbb R^2$. A natural way to "count" these nodes is to "spiral outwards".







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 20 at 20:29

























        answered Jan 20 at 20:19









        o.h.o.h.

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