Urn problem involving removement of half of the balls












1












$begingroup$


An urn contains $n$ heliotrope and $n$ tangerine balls. Half the balls are removed and placed in a box. One of those remaining in the urn is
removed. What is the probability that it is tangerine?



It is not a homework problem. I am just curious about the result. Such problem comes from the book "Elementary probability" from David Stirzaker. Any help or hint is greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well...each ball has an equal chance of being the one selected by this process, so...
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 10 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    To put @lulu's comment differently, suppose instead you take the single ball out first. Does this change the result in any way?
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Jan 10 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I am afraid I have misunderstood the problem description, as it seems really easy to solve it. Could someone provide me a full answer? I'm not an English native speaker.
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note the events like $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$ and $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$ And apply total probability $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Jan 10 at 20:29












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks very much. Could you put it as an answer?
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:42
















1












$begingroup$


An urn contains $n$ heliotrope and $n$ tangerine balls. Half the balls are removed and placed in a box. One of those remaining in the urn is
removed. What is the probability that it is tangerine?



It is not a homework problem. I am just curious about the result. Such problem comes from the book "Elementary probability" from David Stirzaker. Any help or hint is greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well...each ball has an equal chance of being the one selected by this process, so...
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 10 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    To put @lulu's comment differently, suppose instead you take the single ball out first. Does this change the result in any way?
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Jan 10 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I am afraid I have misunderstood the problem description, as it seems really easy to solve it. Could someone provide me a full answer? I'm not an English native speaker.
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note the events like $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$ and $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$ And apply total probability $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Jan 10 at 20:29












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks very much. Could you put it as an answer?
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:42














1












1








1





$begingroup$


An urn contains $n$ heliotrope and $n$ tangerine balls. Half the balls are removed and placed in a box. One of those remaining in the urn is
removed. What is the probability that it is tangerine?



It is not a homework problem. I am just curious about the result. Such problem comes from the book "Elementary probability" from David Stirzaker. Any help or hint is greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




An urn contains $n$ heliotrope and $n$ tangerine balls. Half the balls are removed and placed in a box. One of those remaining in the urn is
removed. What is the probability that it is tangerine?



It is not a homework problem. I am just curious about the result. Such problem comes from the book "Elementary probability" from David Stirzaker. Any help or hint is greatly appreciated.







probability probability-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 10 at 20:12







user1337

















asked Jan 10 at 20:01









user1337user1337

40710




40710








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well...each ball has an equal chance of being the one selected by this process, so...
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 10 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    To put @lulu's comment differently, suppose instead you take the single ball out first. Does this change the result in any way?
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Jan 10 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I am afraid I have misunderstood the problem description, as it seems really easy to solve it. Could someone provide me a full answer? I'm not an English native speaker.
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note the events like $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$ and $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$ And apply total probability $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Jan 10 at 20:29












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks very much. Could you put it as an answer?
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:42














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well...each ball has an equal chance of being the one selected by this process, so...
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 10 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    To put @lulu's comment differently, suppose instead you take the single ball out first. Does this change the result in any way?
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Jan 10 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I am afraid I have misunderstood the problem description, as it seems really easy to solve it. Could someone provide me a full answer? I'm not an English native speaker.
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Note the events like $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$ and $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$ And apply total probability $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Jan 10 at 20:29












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks very much. Could you put it as an answer?
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 20:42








1




1




$begingroup$
Well...each ball has an equal chance of being the one selected by this process, so...
$endgroup$
– lulu
Jan 10 at 20:02




$begingroup$
Well...each ball has an equal chance of being the one selected by this process, so...
$endgroup$
– lulu
Jan 10 at 20:02












$begingroup$
To put @lulu's comment differently, suppose instead you take the single ball out first. Does this change the result in any way?
$endgroup$
– amd
Jan 10 at 20:04




$begingroup$
To put @lulu's comment differently, suppose instead you take the single ball out first. Does this change the result in any way?
$endgroup$
– amd
Jan 10 at 20:04












$begingroup$
Sorry, I am afraid I have misunderstood the problem description, as it seems really easy to solve it. Could someone provide me a full answer? I'm not an English native speaker.
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 10 at 20:10




$begingroup$
Sorry, I am afraid I have misunderstood the problem description, as it seems really easy to solve it. Could someone provide me a full answer? I'm not an English native speaker.
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 10 at 20:10












$begingroup$
Note the events like $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$ and $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$ And apply total probability $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Jan 10 at 20:29






$begingroup$
Note the events like $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$ and $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$ And apply total probability $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Jan 10 at 20:29














$begingroup$
Thanks very much. Could you put it as an answer?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 10 at 20:42




$begingroup$
Thanks very much. Could you put it as an answer?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 10 at 20:42










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Note the events like





  • $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$

  • $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls exactly are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$


And apply total probability
$$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$



$P(B mid A_k)$ are easy to calculate, $n$ balls were extracted 1st time, $k$ were tangerine, so $n-k$ tangerine balls were left, thus $P(B mid A_k)=frac{n-k}{n}$.



And $$P(A_k)=frac{binom{n}{n-k}cdot binom{n}{k}}{binom{2n}{n}}$$
Finally
$$P(B)=frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nfrac{n-k}{n}binom{n}{n-k}binom{n}{k}right)=
frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{n-k}{n}cdotfrac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=\
frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k-1)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=
frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{binom{n-1}{k}}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{k}}right)=\
frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nbinom{n-1}{k}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{n-k}}right)=...$$

applying Vandermonde's identity
$$...=frac{binom{2n-1}{n}}{binom{2n}{n}}=frac{1}{2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The book gives $1/2$ as an answer. Is there a shortcut in order to obtain it?
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 21:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @user1337 updated ...
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Jan 10 at 21:28





















1












$begingroup$

The answer is $frac 12$. Indeed, each ball is equally likely to be chosen by this process and half the balls have the desired color. Had there been $a$ of the desired color and $2n-a$ of the undesired color, the answer would have been $frac a{2n}$.



Note: it's clear from symmetry that each ball is likely to be selected this way, but it's not difficult to explicitly compute the probability that a given ball is selected. Indeed, for a given ball to be selected it must first not be deleted (probability $frac 12$) and second it must be chosen from the $n$ survivors (probability $frac 1n$). Thus the probability that a given ball is selected is $frac 1{2n}$ as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Note the events like





    • $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$

    • $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls exactly are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$


    And apply total probability
    $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$



    $P(B mid A_k)$ are easy to calculate, $n$ balls were extracted 1st time, $k$ were tangerine, so $n-k$ tangerine balls were left, thus $P(B mid A_k)=frac{n-k}{n}$.



    And $$P(A_k)=frac{binom{n}{n-k}cdot binom{n}{k}}{binom{2n}{n}}$$
    Finally
    $$P(B)=frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nfrac{n-k}{n}binom{n}{n-k}binom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{n-k}{n}cdotfrac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k-1)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{binom{n-1}{k}}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{k}}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nbinom{n-1}{k}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{n-k}}right)=...$$

    applying Vandermonde's identity
    $$...=frac{binom{2n-1}{n}}{binom{2n}{n}}=frac{1}{2}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      The book gives $1/2$ as an answer. Is there a shortcut in order to obtain it?
      $endgroup$
      – user1337
      Jan 10 at 21:00






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @user1337 updated ...
      $endgroup$
      – rtybase
      Jan 10 at 21:28


















    1












    $begingroup$

    Note the events like





    • $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$

    • $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls exactly are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$


    And apply total probability
    $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$



    $P(B mid A_k)$ are easy to calculate, $n$ balls were extracted 1st time, $k$ were tangerine, so $n-k$ tangerine balls were left, thus $P(B mid A_k)=frac{n-k}{n}$.



    And $$P(A_k)=frac{binom{n}{n-k}cdot binom{n}{k}}{binom{2n}{n}}$$
    Finally
    $$P(B)=frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nfrac{n-k}{n}binom{n}{n-k}binom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{n-k}{n}cdotfrac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k-1)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{binom{n-1}{k}}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{k}}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nbinom{n-1}{k}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{n-k}}right)=...$$

    applying Vandermonde's identity
    $$...=frac{binom{2n-1}{n}}{binom{2n}{n}}=frac{1}{2}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      The book gives $1/2$ as an answer. Is there a shortcut in order to obtain it?
      $endgroup$
      – user1337
      Jan 10 at 21:00






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @user1337 updated ...
      $endgroup$
      – rtybase
      Jan 10 at 21:28
















    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Note the events like





    • $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$

    • $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls exactly are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$


    And apply total probability
    $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$



    $P(B mid A_k)$ are easy to calculate, $n$ balls were extracted 1st time, $k$ were tangerine, so $n-k$ tangerine balls were left, thus $P(B mid A_k)=frac{n-k}{n}$.



    And $$P(A_k)=frac{binom{n}{n-k}cdot binom{n}{k}}{binom{2n}{n}}$$
    Finally
    $$P(B)=frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nfrac{n-k}{n}binom{n}{n-k}binom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{n-k}{n}cdotfrac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k-1)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{binom{n-1}{k}}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{k}}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nbinom{n-1}{k}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{n-k}}right)=...$$

    applying Vandermonde's identity
    $$...=frac{binom{2n-1}{n}}{binom{2n}{n}}=frac{1}{2}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Note the events like





    • $B={text{tangerine ball is extracted with the 2nd extraction}}$

    • $A_k={k - text{tangerine balls exactly are extracted with the 1st extraction}}$


    And apply total probability
    $$P(B)=sumlimits_{k=0}^n P(B mid A_k)cdot P(A_k)$$



    $P(B mid A_k)$ are easy to calculate, $n$ balls were extracted 1st time, $k$ were tangerine, so $n-k$ tangerine balls were left, thus $P(B mid A_k)=frac{n-k}{n}$.



    And $$P(A_k)=frac{binom{n}{n-k}cdot binom{n}{k}}{binom{2n}{n}}$$
    Finally
    $$P(B)=frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nfrac{n-k}{n}binom{n}{n-k}binom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{n-k}{n}cdotfrac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k-1)!k!}}cdotbinom{n}{k}right)=
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^ncolor{blue}{binom{n-1}{k}}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{k}}right)=\
    frac{1}{binom{2n}{n}}left(sumlimits_{k=0}^nbinom{n-1}{k}cdotcolor{red}{binom{n}{n-k}}right)=...$$

    applying Vandermonde's identity
    $$...=frac{binom{2n-1}{n}}{binom{2n}{n}}=frac{1}{2}$$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 10 at 21:36

























    answered Jan 10 at 20:46









    rtybasertybase

    10.7k21533




    10.7k21533












    • $begingroup$
      The book gives $1/2$ as an answer. Is there a shortcut in order to obtain it?
      $endgroup$
      – user1337
      Jan 10 at 21:00






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @user1337 updated ...
      $endgroup$
      – rtybase
      Jan 10 at 21:28




















    • $begingroup$
      The book gives $1/2$ as an answer. Is there a shortcut in order to obtain it?
      $endgroup$
      – user1337
      Jan 10 at 21:00






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @user1337 updated ...
      $endgroup$
      – rtybase
      Jan 10 at 21:28


















    $begingroup$
    The book gives $1/2$ as an answer. Is there a shortcut in order to obtain it?
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 21:00




    $begingroup$
    The book gives $1/2$ as an answer. Is there a shortcut in order to obtain it?
    $endgroup$
    – user1337
    Jan 10 at 21:00




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    @user1337 updated ...
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Jan 10 at 21:28






    $begingroup$
    @user1337 updated ...
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Jan 10 at 21:28













    1












    $begingroup$

    The answer is $frac 12$. Indeed, each ball is equally likely to be chosen by this process and half the balls have the desired color. Had there been $a$ of the desired color and $2n-a$ of the undesired color, the answer would have been $frac a{2n}$.



    Note: it's clear from symmetry that each ball is likely to be selected this way, but it's not difficult to explicitly compute the probability that a given ball is selected. Indeed, for a given ball to be selected it must first not be deleted (probability $frac 12$) and second it must be chosen from the $n$ survivors (probability $frac 1n$). Thus the probability that a given ball is selected is $frac 1{2n}$ as desired.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      The answer is $frac 12$. Indeed, each ball is equally likely to be chosen by this process and half the balls have the desired color. Had there been $a$ of the desired color and $2n-a$ of the undesired color, the answer would have been $frac a{2n}$.



      Note: it's clear from symmetry that each ball is likely to be selected this way, but it's not difficult to explicitly compute the probability that a given ball is selected. Indeed, for a given ball to be selected it must first not be deleted (probability $frac 12$) and second it must be chosen from the $n$ survivors (probability $frac 1n$). Thus the probability that a given ball is selected is $frac 1{2n}$ as desired.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        The answer is $frac 12$. Indeed, each ball is equally likely to be chosen by this process and half the balls have the desired color. Had there been $a$ of the desired color and $2n-a$ of the undesired color, the answer would have been $frac a{2n}$.



        Note: it's clear from symmetry that each ball is likely to be selected this way, but it's not difficult to explicitly compute the probability that a given ball is selected. Indeed, for a given ball to be selected it must first not be deleted (probability $frac 12$) and second it must be chosen from the $n$ survivors (probability $frac 1n$). Thus the probability that a given ball is selected is $frac 1{2n}$ as desired.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The answer is $frac 12$. Indeed, each ball is equally likely to be chosen by this process and half the balls have the desired color. Had there been $a$ of the desired color and $2n-a$ of the undesired color, the answer would have been $frac a{2n}$.



        Note: it's clear from symmetry that each ball is likely to be selected this way, but it's not difficult to explicitly compute the probability that a given ball is selected. Indeed, for a given ball to be selected it must first not be deleted (probability $frac 12$) and second it must be chosen from the $n$ survivors (probability $frac 1n$). Thus the probability that a given ball is selected is $frac 1{2n}$ as desired.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 10 at 23:53

























        answered Jan 10 at 21:18









        lulululu

        39.8k24778




        39.8k24778






























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