Sturm–Liouville equation with finite number of eigenvalues?












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Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.



It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.

Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.



However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.



What is wrong here?










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  • Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
    – LutzL
    yesterday










  • @LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
    – xiaohuamao
    yesterday












  • If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    23 hours ago










  • @DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
    – xiaohuamao
    23 hours ago










  • $x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago
















0














Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.



It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.

Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.



However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.



What is wrong here?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
    – LutzL
    yesterday










  • @LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
    – xiaohuamao
    yesterday












  • If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    23 hours ago










  • @DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
    – xiaohuamao
    23 hours ago










  • $x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago














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Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.



It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.

Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.



However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.



What is wrong here?










share|cite|improve this question















Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.



It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.

Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.



However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.



What is wrong here?







differential-equations eigenvalues-eigenvectors boundary-value-problem singularity sturm-liouville






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited yesterday

























asked yesterday









xiaohuamao

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258110












  • Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
    – LutzL
    yesterday










  • @LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
    – xiaohuamao
    yesterday












  • If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    23 hours ago










  • @DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
    – xiaohuamao
    23 hours ago










  • $x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago


















  • Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
    – LutzL
    yesterday










  • @LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
    – xiaohuamao
    yesterday












  • If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    23 hours ago










  • @DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
    – xiaohuamao
    23 hours ago










  • $x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago
















Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
– LutzL
yesterday




Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
– LutzL
yesterday












@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
– xiaohuamao
yesterday






@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
– xiaohuamao
yesterday














If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
– DisintegratingByParts
23 hours ago




If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
– DisintegratingByParts
23 hours ago












@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
– xiaohuamao
23 hours ago




@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
– xiaohuamao
23 hours ago












$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
– DisintegratingByParts
22 hours ago




$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
– DisintegratingByParts
22 hours ago










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