Some sort of Laplace transform












1














Let $K$ be some compact set and $mu$ be a probability measure on $K$.
Let $f:Ktomathbb S^{d-1}$ be a continuous function, where $mathbb S^{d-1}$ is the unit sphere in $mathbb R^d$ And $g:Ktomathbb R^d$ be a measurable function. Assume that $f$ is injective.



Is it true that if, for all $yinmathbb R^d$,
$$int_K e^{y^{top} f(x)}y^top g(x) dmu(x)=0,$$
Then $g(x)=0$ $mu$-almost surely?



When $mu$ is finitely supported, it is true and quite easy to show, but I am not sure about the general case...
Thank you!










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    1














    Let $K$ be some compact set and $mu$ be a probability measure on $K$.
    Let $f:Ktomathbb S^{d-1}$ be a continuous function, where $mathbb S^{d-1}$ is the unit sphere in $mathbb R^d$ And $g:Ktomathbb R^d$ be a measurable function. Assume that $f$ is injective.



    Is it true that if, for all $yinmathbb R^d$,
    $$int_K e^{y^{top} f(x)}y^top g(x) dmu(x)=0,$$
    Then $g(x)=0$ $mu$-almost surely?



    When $mu$ is finitely supported, it is true and quite easy to show, but I am not sure about the general case...
    Thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question

























      1












      1








      1







      Let $K$ be some compact set and $mu$ be a probability measure on $K$.
      Let $f:Ktomathbb S^{d-1}$ be a continuous function, where $mathbb S^{d-1}$ is the unit sphere in $mathbb R^d$ And $g:Ktomathbb R^d$ be a measurable function. Assume that $f$ is injective.



      Is it true that if, for all $yinmathbb R^d$,
      $$int_K e^{y^{top} f(x)}y^top g(x) dmu(x)=0,$$
      Then $g(x)=0$ $mu$-almost surely?



      When $mu$ is finitely supported, it is true and quite easy to show, but I am not sure about the general case...
      Thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $K$ be some compact set and $mu$ be a probability measure on $K$.
      Let $f:Ktomathbb S^{d-1}$ be a continuous function, where $mathbb S^{d-1}$ is the unit sphere in $mathbb R^d$ And $g:Ktomathbb R^d$ be a measurable function. Assume that $f$ is injective.



      Is it true that if, for all $yinmathbb R^d$,
      $$int_K e^{y^{top} f(x)}y^top g(x) dmu(x)=0,$$
      Then $g(x)=0$ $mu$-almost surely?



      When $mu$ is finitely supported, it is true and quite easy to show, but I am not sure about the general case...
      Thank you!







      real-analysis laplace-transform






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      asked 2 days ago









      TrivialPursuitTrivialPursuit

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