A relatively compact sets arbitrarily close to a set












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In a lot of papers for example (1) and (2), the authors use this technique: in order to prove that a set $V$ is relatively compact in a Banach space $X$, they construct a family of sets $V_delta$ such that $V_delta$ is relatively compact and $V_deltarightarrow V$ as $deltarightarrow 0$,



Therefore, there are relatively compact sets arbitrarily close to the set $V$.



Hence the set $V$ is also relatively compact in $X$.



I'm wondering why this is true?










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    In a lot of papers for example (1) and (2), the authors use this technique: in order to prove that a set $V$ is relatively compact in a Banach space $X$, they construct a family of sets $V_delta$ such that $V_delta$ is relatively compact and $V_deltarightarrow V$ as $deltarightarrow 0$,



    Therefore, there are relatively compact sets arbitrarily close to the set $V$.



    Hence the set $V$ is also relatively compact in $X$.



    I'm wondering why this is true?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      In a lot of papers for example (1) and (2), the authors use this technique: in order to prove that a set $V$ is relatively compact in a Banach space $X$, they construct a family of sets $V_delta$ such that $V_delta$ is relatively compact and $V_deltarightarrow V$ as $deltarightarrow 0$,



      Therefore, there are relatively compact sets arbitrarily close to the set $V$.



      Hence the set $V$ is also relatively compact in $X$.



      I'm wondering why this is true?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      In a lot of papers for example (1) and (2), the authors use this technique: in order to prove that a set $V$ is relatively compact in a Banach space $X$, they construct a family of sets $V_delta$ such that $V_delta$ is relatively compact and $V_deltarightarrow V$ as $deltarightarrow 0$,



      Therefore, there are relatively compact sets arbitrarily close to the set $V$.



      Hence the set $V$ is also relatively compact in $X$.



      I'm wondering why this is true?







      real-analysis analysis compactness






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 14 at 14:52









      MotakaMotaka

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      239111






















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